rosends
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- Oct 19, 2012
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He started to but the people freaked out.Why didn't God just skip the Levites and give the laws to the Jews in the first place?
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He started to but the people freaked out.Why didn't God just skip the Levites and give the laws to the Jews in the first place?
Got a scripture for that (I'm thinking somewhere in 1 Samuel). Saul replaced the judges, of the twelve only two were Jews.He started to but the people freaked out.
(Exodus 20:15-18):Got a scripture for that (I'm thinking somewhere in 1 Samuel). Saul replaced the judges, of the twelve only two were Jews.
The only 'authority' given to a Jew in the Book of Exodus was overseeing the building of the tabernacle and other items used for worship. However, the Aaronic priesthood was established by God in Exodus. In the following book LEVIticus, more laws,statutes and judgements were revealed, to be administered by the sons of Aaron. Nowhere are Jews even mentioned.(Exodus 20:15-18):
’The entire people saw the thunder and the flames, the sound of the shofar and the smoking mountain; the people saw and trembled and stood from afar. They said to Moshe:’You speak to us and we shall hear; let G-d not speak to us lest we die’. Moses said to the people:’Do not fear, for in order to elevate you has G-d come; so that awe of Him shall be upon your faces, so that you shall not sin’.The people stood from afar and Moshe approached the thick cloud where G-d was’.
Jews aren't mentioned because the word didn't exist yet.I just quoted text which shows that God have authority to Moses to speak all the laws to the people. You don't have to like it, but there it is. (By the way, if your claim is that because the word "Jew" didn't exist, no authority was given to "Jews" then you are making a semantic argument, and you also then would say that the overseeing of anything wasn't given to a "Jew" either.The only 'authority' given to a Jew in the Book of Exodus was overseeing the building of the tabernacle and other items used for worship. However, the Aaronic priesthood was established by God in Exodus. In the following book LEVIticus, more laws,statutes and judgements were revealed, to be administered by the sons of Aaron. Nowhere are Jews even mentioned.
No and neither was Moses Jewish. Jews simply did not exist until the birth of Judah.Serious question. At what point did Judaism come into being, as opposed to being a gentile?
I was going to use the term "Judahite" but I chose "Jews" because that's the term we are using in this discussion. I know that the Jews venerate Moses (Moshe) but he was a Levite, not a Judahite. There is nothing in all of OT scripture that suggests a Jewish/Judahite priesthood nor anything that suggests that the Jews/Judahites were commissioned to explain the Law to anyone. The Jews have taken the Law down a bottomless rabbit hole with no authority to do so.Jews aren't mentioned because the word didn't exist yet.I just quoted text which shows that God have authority to Moses to speak all the laws to the people. You don't have to like it, but there it is. (By the way, if your claim is that because the word "Jew" didn't exist, no authority was given to "Jews" then you are making a semantic argument, and you also then would say that the overseeing of anything wasn't given to a "Jew" either.
Moses was from the tribe of Levi, but all tribes were children of Israel so there is no distinction to be made there. The use of the term "Judahite" makes no sense unless you intend to define each individual by his tribe in the desert.I was going to use the term "Judahite" but I chose "Jews" because that's the term we are using in this discussion. I know that the Jews venerate Moses (Moshe) but he was a Levite, not a Judahite.
So now you are talking about the Jews' explaining the law to non-Jews? Why is that about authority. We know Jewish laws, so we can explain them to others. Would you rather not understand the law? That's fine, too.There is nothing in all of OT scripture that suggests a Jewish/Judahite priesthood nor anything that suggests that the Jews/Judahites were commissioned to explain the Law to anyone. The Jews have taken the Law down a bottomless rabbit hole with no authority to do so.
Is the Pope Catholic?Serious question. At what point did Judaism come into being, as opposed to being a gentile?
Moses was from the tribe of Levi, but all tribes were children of Israel so there is no distinction to be made there. The use of the term "Judahite" makes no sense unless you intend to define each individual by his tribe in the desert.
So now you are talking about the Jews' explaining the law to non-Jews? Why is that about authority. We know Jewish laws, so we can explain them to others. Would you rather not understand the law? That's fine, too.
I talking about your assertion that the Levites needed the Judahites/Jews to explain the Law to them. There were no gentiles involved in that part of Israelite history.So now you are talking about the Jews' explaining the law to non-Jews? Why is that about authority. We know Jewish laws, so we can explain them to others. Would you rather not understand the law? That's fine, too.
first, who cares about the gospels. Second, they were distinctions but did not change the group identity marker.Tribal distinctions are made throughout the Bible, even into the NT.
No, you can't. If you think you can, let me know. I'll give you stuff to read.We gentiles aren't interested in Jewish ideas about the Law. We can read for ourselves.
God gives the laws to Moses. He teaches a variety of people (the elders from all the tribes). The elders then teach things to the people.I talking about your assertion that the Levites needed the Judahites/Jews to explain the Law to them. There were no gentiles involved in that part of Israelite history.
The "group identity marker" is Israelite, not Jewish, until the split. Then the name Israel stayed with the ten tribes.first, who cares about the gospels. Second, they were distinctions but did not change the group identity marker.
Only if we can trade stuff.No, you can't. If you think you can, let me know. I'll give you stuff to read.
The children of Israel was the identity marker. The word "Israelite" has no biblical place.The "group identity marker" is Israelite, not Jewish, until the split. Then the name Israel stayed with the ten tribes.
I don't need anything in return. You claim you can read it. I'll give you some and you read it for me. Pretty basic. Just let me know.Only if we can trade stuff.![]()
What you will give me is the oral tradition of the Jews, which is not scriptural. I rely on actual scripture for my understanding.The children of Israel was the identity marker. The word "Israelite" has no biblical place.
I don't need anything in return. You claim you can read it. I'll give you some and you read it for me. Pretty basic. Just let me know.
then you can't understand the text. But that's no surprise.What you will give me is the oral tradition of the Jews, which is not scriptural. I rely on actual scripture for my understanding.
thank you for confirming that you can't read the text. The text never says "Israelites." The Hebrew word it uses is "Israel" and that's it.All the children of Israel were Israelites regardless of tribal distinction. The term "Israelites" appears 16 times in the OT. Just click on any of these, then compare them to your Bible.
The Bible I use was translated for the English-speaking people. We've done pretty well with it since.then you can't understand the text. But that's no surprise.
thank you for confirming that you can't read the text. The text never says "Israelites." The Hebrew word it uses is "Israel" and that's it.
This is the rabbit hole I mentioned.then you can't understand the text. But that's no surprise.
thank you for confirming that you can't read the text. The text never says "Israelites." The Hebrew word it uses is "Israel" and that's it.