That means that the highest Court in our land to which there is no further appeal, agreed with Utah's AG that the citizens there must have the power of their vote protected in the interim as appeals are pending on the man/woman law of marriage in that state.
So, having thus Found in the interim, all other lower federal courts that are in conflict with that Finding in the interim, are now OVERRULED. The Highest Court has spoken on the plea that the civil right to have one's vote counted, at least for now, is paramount to "the civil rights of gays to marry right away".
Nope. The ruling applies only to Utah. It doesn't apply to any other state, nor create any binding precedent. You simply don't know what you're talking about. The USSC already rejected a stay of gay marriage in Oregon. If your logic were sound, then there would be no stays in any state, as the Oregon rejection of a stay would apply to all States.
But it didn't. It applied only to Oregon. Petitions for stays do not create any form of binding precedent nor have any relevance to any other case. They apply only to the state that is making the petition for a stay. Nixing your entire argument.
Hell, today the 4th circuit just ruled that a gay marriage ban in Virginia was unconstitutional. Something they wouldn't have been able to do if a stay of implementation in Utah overruled all lower courts for every state.
You're simply confused, imagining a version of the law that says what you want to believe. Rather than recognizing the actual law and court rulings, which are almost universally at odds with your position.
Alas, your imagination has no legal weight.
Now apply the equal mandates for Federal Findings on civil rights across the 50 states.
There's no such mandate. The stay applied only to the petition being addressed; Utah's. Not to every petition by every state. You have no idea how the federal judiciary works.
Worse, there is no petition for stays by California. So how could a denial of stay that was *never sought* nor *ever issued* be overruled?
Obviously, you're confused.
Prop 8 is now once again valid law....because Utah's AG had standing......and at least for now, voters' undeniable civil rights to self-govern is dominant law to supposed "civil rights of gay behaviors to marry"...!
Nope. You're not even close. You've imagined universal jurisdiction where it doesn't exist. Binding precedent where it doesn't exist. Granting a petition applies only to that petition. Not to every petition everywhere from every state.
Worse for your claims, the CA AG isn't petitioning the USSC for a stay of implementation of the federal judiciary's ruling. With the USSC already ruling that individual citizens in CA have no standing on Prop 8 unless directly harmed. Prop 8 remains explicitly illegal to implement in the State of California. And there's no one with standing in CA that is challenging the court ruling.
California has nothing to do with the stay granted the Utah AG.
But hey, sprinkle some more faux latin on it. Your claims will still be just as irrelevant, but it might look less debunked to a casual observer.