Yes, they did! They were concerned that the federal government would disband the state militias, then use their goons to collect taxes and stuff.
Ask yourself this: Why didn't the framers of the Bill of Rights use the word "person," as they did in the Fifth Amendment? Why not "the right of a person"?
The First uses "people" to refer to assembly, which is by definition plural. The Third says "Owner" rather than "Owners" because it is individual, about the singular owner of one house. The Fourth guarantees "The right of the people to be secure in their persons," with the last two words confirming that again, "people" is plural. The Sixth uses "his," and not "their." The Ninth and Tenth use the word "people" to refer to the State governments.
"People" means a collective group of people here. If they were referring to each individual person, it would have read "the right of a person."
They never debated individual ownership; it never crossed their minds or their desks. They were always talking about the right of the State to assemble its militia on the village green, to resist the might of a central tyrant.