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An oppressive government is more afraid of your vote than your gun
That explains why oppressive governments always take the guns before they take the votes.
They first move to dictatorships and abolish the vote
But guess what? The US is not a dictatorship regardless of what rightwing propaganda says.
I just hope that moron Ginsberg remains alive until after January 2017.It's amazing to me that so many don't know about Heller.
Doesn't surprise me at all. Precedent? Schmecedent!! Pack the court with new justices!!!
Dem/Prog/Lib/Socialist/Commies see the Constitution as a "living" document, subject to constant reinterpretation.....Obama thinks it is "flawed"......This is America today.
The Second Amendment preserve Freedom of Americans, no one Kenyan communist can abolish it.
The 2nd Amendment is simply whatever SCOTUS says it is. SCOTUS has redefined it before and will redefine it again.
Is the Second Amendment obsolete?
The 2nd Amendment is simply whatever SCOTUS says it is. SCOTUS has redefined it before and will redefine it again.
SCOTUS has never wavered in its determinations / explanations of the right to arms and the 2nd Amendment (two distinct, separate things).
SCOTUS has never held that the right has any dependency on the 2nd Amendment (or "interpretation" of it) because the Court has always held that the right pre-existed the Constitution thus is not granted, given, created or established by the Constitution . . . In the words of the Court:
- "[T]he right of the people to keep and bear arms is not a right granted by the Constitution. Neither is it in any manner dependent upon that instrument for its existence."
So the obvious question is, why do you persist in inventing conditions, qualifications, restrictions and constraints on the right from words that have absolutely no effect on the right? (besides the obvious reasons, profound ignorance (at best) or unabashed hostility for the Constitution (at worst))
Even more to the point, after nearly 140 years of holding that the right to arms does not "in any manner" depend on the words of the 2nd, what makes you think that the Court will do a 180° switcheroo?
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There are two problems with the Second Amendment. First, under any circumstance, it is confusing; something that an English teacher would mark up in red ink and tell the author to redo and clarify. Secondly, there are actually two versions of the Amendment; The first passed by two-thirds of the members of each house of Congress (the first step for ratifying a constitutional amendment). A different version passed by three-fourths of the states (the second step for ratifying a constitution amendment). The primary difference between the two versions are a capitalization and a simple comma.
It is confusing to intelligent people.
The 2nd Amendment is simply whatever SCOTUS says it is. SCOTUS has redefined it before and will redefine it again.
SCOTUS has never wavered in its determinations / explanations of the right to arms and the 2nd Amendment (two distinct, separate things).
SCOTUS has never held that the right has any dependency on the 2nd Amendment (or "interpretation" of it) because the Court has always held that the right pre-existed the Constitution thus is not granted, given, created or established by the Constitution . . . In the words of the Court:
So the obvious question is, why do you persist in inventing conditions, qualifications, restrictions and constraints on the right from words that have absolutely no effect on the right? (besides the obvious reasons, profound ignorance (at best) or unabashed hostility for the Constitution (at worst))
- "[T]he right of the people to keep and bear arms is not a right granted by the Constitution. Neither is it in any manner dependent upon that instrument for its existence."
Even more to the point, after nearly 140 years of holding that the right to arms does not "in any manner" depend on the words of the 2nd, what makes you think that the Court will do a 180° switcheroo?
Things change. Shit happens. People evolve...
The 2nd Amendment is simply whatever SCOTUS says it is. SCOTUS has redefined it before and will redefine it again.
SCOTUS has never wavered in its determinations / explanations of the right to arms and the 2nd Amendment (two distinct, separate things).
SCOTUS has never held that the right has any dependency on the 2nd Amendment (or "interpretation" of it) because the Court has always held that the right pre-existed the Constitution thus is not granted, given, created or established by the Constitution . . . In the words of the Court:
- "[T]he right of the people to keep and bear arms is not a right granted by the Constitution. Neither is it in any manner dependent upon that instrument for its existence."
So the obvious question is, why do you persist in inventing conditions, qualifications, restrictions and constraints on the right from words that have absolutely no effect on the right? (besides the obvious reasons, profound ignorance (at best) or unabashed hostility for the Constitution (at worst))
Even more to the point, after nearly 140 years of holding that the right to arms does not "in any manner" depend on the words of the 2nd, what makes you think that the Court will do a 180° switcheroo?
Things change. Shit happens. People evolve...
sorry Rinata.....the PEOPLE are the Citizens of this Country.....this Country has "Zero Tolerance" for this and that.....maybe they should start having "Zero Tolerance" for Violence against people and start putting violent people away for a long time with no time off for good behavior......you serve every minute of your sentence.....The 2nd amendment allows us the right to bear arms. How is that a misinterpretation?
What it actually says is:
A well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free state, the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed.
This does not give individuals the right to bear arms. It is giving militias the right to bear arms. How is this at all relevant today??
The 2nd amendment allows us the right to bear arms. How is that a misinterpretation?
What it actually says is:
“A well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free state, the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed.”
This does not give individuals the right to bear arms. It is giving militias the right to bear arms. How is this at all relevant today??
You are 100% wrong, The 2 phrases can be taken independently. The founders realized that militias aren't a permanent entity. They may be raised, disbanded and become necessary again at a later time.
When, in the future, a citizen militia may be needed again, it will need arms. A oppressive government isn't about to arm its opposition.