And you implied that the parties aren't justifiable in doing so unless the treaty stipulates it, which the NPT does not.
The primary point here is that:
-Iran is party to the NPT
-Iran is not abiding by the terms of the NPT
-Other parties to the NPT are trying to get Iran to abide by the terms of the NPT.
These other parties absolutely have the right to expect Iran to abide by the NPT.
Oh? And please define exactly what is the "nature of international law" that is stopping it.
I believe you said it well enough:
Unless there are enforcement mechanisms, which generally there aren't, countries aren't bound to anything. They generally respect treaties for political reasons and for the reasons they enter into the treaties in the first place, but the countries aren't bound to their treaties by force.
This is a condition inherent to international law, because states will generally refuse to give up enough of their sovereignty to unquestioningly accept extra-national judgements as absolutely binding, such as we do with domestic law.
Incorrect. See Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties.
In terms of what the treaty demands, the restrictions thereof, the rights granted to and reserved by the parties, and the enforcement thereof (which is the context in which the statement was made) this is meaningless.
Limiting something is very different than removing it. None of those treaties had the goal of getting rid of nuclear capability, just reducing it.
That was lame. Reduction is the initial step to elimination. The arms limitations and reduction treaties over the last 40 years are obvious steps along the Article VI path, and so the arguement that the US has violated/ignored article VI is unsupportable.
Actually it is law in general. Its generally not enforced because there are no enforcement mechanisms, and it works very differently than domestic law, but it is still law.
The point is that the provisions and mechanisms that we have in domestic law do not exit in international law. Glad you agree.
And remember:
ALL Law is meaningless unless it can be enforced.
Because all countries always respect each others sovreignity, right?
Of course not. And this is why it all comes down to force -- who can apply it, directly or through an effective threat.
And as for that...the ICC has jurisdiction over every country in the world in certain circumstances...whether they submit to it or not.
Unless a country agrees accept the jurisdiction of the ICC, and then ICC judgements, the ICC has no jurisdiction. Soverignty, you know.
Never mind that the ICC relies on voluntary compliance.
International law is very political. It is not simple, and it is very different than domestic law.
Yes. I think I said that.
However there are certain segments of the American political spectrum who seem to want it both ways. When someone they don't like violates international law its a travesty and they must be punished. When America violates international law, well there are no enforcement mechanisms and international law isn't "real law".
Thats because the US, like every other country, will do whatever it can do to best meet its own needs. Again, what it comes down to is force.
ALL law comes down to force; International law is no different.
The largest and most common which is the UNSC which has jurisdiction to give orders to sovreign nations without their consent.
Only if those countries are members of the UN, who, by being members, agree to be bound by UNSC directives -- that is, they give consent to the UNSC to direct them.
The UNSC has no power whatsoever over a non-member country.