rtwngAvngr
Senior Member
- Jan 5, 2004
- 15,755
- 513
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- Banned
- #1
In the case of tv commercials which say one thing verbally, and then flash some fine print on the screen saying something totally opposite, why is not the verbal portion legally binding, but the printed portion IS apparently binding? That seems like b.s. Who said the spoken word was inferior to the printed word?