WorldWatcher
Platinum Member
false if he was elected through fraud any law sgned by him would not be protected by the constaitution. His election would be unconstitutional through fraud and fraud makes any contract invalid.
Research "Officer Doctrine", the SCOTUS would likely apply it.
Second, a simple question, does a bill passed by Congress have to be signed by the the President to take effect?
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The Corporate Officer Doctrine would not apply sorry.
An official must satisfy detailed statutory and constitutional requirements before he can claim lawful authority to exercise governmental functions.
https://litigation-essentials.lexis...cid=3B15&key=c6472f8b7cb87e820d95acfcc6d3feca
Yes and noSecond, a simple question, does a bill passed by Congress have to be signed by the the President to take effect?
The President - the bill is sent to the President for review.
1.A bill becomes law if signed by the President or if not signed within 10 days and Congress is in session.
2.If Congress adjourns before the 10 days and the President has not signed the bill then it does not become law ("Pocket Veto.")
3.If the President vetoes the bill it is sent back to Congress with a note listing his/her reasons. The chamber that originated the legislation can attempt to override the veto by a vote of two-thirds of those present. If the veto of the bill is overridden in both chambers then it becomes law.
Project Vote Smart - GOVERNMENT 101: How a Bill Becomes Law
It's not the "Corporate" Officer Doctrine, you should have read a little farther: "The de facto officer doctrine prevents such uncertainty by precluding challenges to official actions on the ground of defective title in the acting official."
So no, the President is not required to sign bills passed by Congress. Thank you.
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