Simply a reflection of the steady increase in the money supply.
It can be...but can you prove it...or present something that tends to demonstrate it to be a good candidate?
I'm not asking a rhetorical question.
As I recall, last I looked, that 208% increase in the money supply base didn't get out to M2, liquidity trap and everything. Then again, QE isn't M2.
Volume is important. It's price times volume. 1 stock selling at 14000 is the same as 10,000 at $14,000 right? The DOW average being on a weighted sample of selected stocks... It doesn't reflect the total volume of funds flowing.
We know, with certainty, that asset prices can rise on an increase in the supply of money available for purchasing them. We can even guarantee that it has happened before. Knowing it happened this time, with certainty, is something else. Question is, can we prove it?