In McCulloch a unanimous Court reaffirmed the intent of the Framers and Founding Generation to create a National government supreme to that of the states and local jurisdictions, a comprehensive National government, including the Federal judiciary, where the 'States could [not] interfere with federal powers. "This was not intended by the American people. They did not design to make their government dependent on the States." Id., at 432.' (US Term Limits citing McCulloch.)
But the Bill of Rights isn't a 'federal power'.
Its a list of restrictions to federal power. The exact opposite of what is being described by McCulloch. And the Bill of Rights that you're claiming McCulloch applies to the States.....
is never mentioned once in the entire ruling. Nor is there any finding that the Bill of Rights
could apply to the States.
You've quite literally imagined it.
Just as the states have no authority to interfere with the Federal government's desire to create a national bank, so too may the states not interfere with the Federal courts, ignore their rulings, or defy their orders.
Several small problems with your reasoning.
There was
no order to apply the Bill of Rights to the States by the Federal courts. There was
no finding that that the Bill of Rights applied to the States by the Federal Courts. As the Bill of Rights is a restriction to Federal Power. The Bill of rights
has no mention of restricting the States actions in regards to the rights of the people.
Which is EXACTLY what the court found in Barron V. Baltimore. And they couldn't be clearer.
We are of opinion that the provision in the Fifth Amendment to the Constitution declaring that private property shall not be taken for public use without just compensation is intended solely as a limitation on the exercise of power by the Government of the United States, and is not applicable to the legislation of the States.
Barron v. Mayor & City Council of Baltimore (1833)
"Is not applicable" about sums it up. The Barron court even explains *how* you're wrong.
These amendments demanded security against the apprehended encroachments of the General Government -- not against those of the local governments. In compliance with a sentiment thus generally expressed, to quiet fears thus extensively entertained, amendments were proposed by the required majority in Congress and adopted by the States. These amendments contain no expression indicating an intention to apply them to the State governments. This court cannot so apply them.
Barron v. Mayor & City Council of Baltimore (1833)
There's no ambiguity. Barron's case was dismissed by the SCOTUS, as the Federal courts lacked jurisdiction. The amendments didn't apply to the States. Y
ou are simply wrong. The case you're using as your example
never mentions the Bill of Rights in any capacity. And
never ruled that it applied to the States. While the case you're ignoring explicitly contradicts you, saying unambiguously that the Bill of rights does NOT apply to the States.
Your imagination vs. an explicit contradiction by the United States Supreme Court has the same winner every time. And its not you.
Worse, there's zero mention in any Federalist Paper or any Constitutional Convention by anyone that the Bill of Rights applied to the State. So you can't even argue 'original intent'. As not one of the founders backed your play.
For crying out load, Congressman John Bingham, one of the writers of the 14th amendment, read the Barron V. Baltimore decision on House floor in explaining why the 14th amendment was necessary. Because the Bill of Rights *didn't* apply to the States.
You can ignore Barron V. Baltimore. But you can't make us ignore it.