Solar Power pays off for enterprising Palestinians.

[P F Tinmore]

P F Tinmore, et al,

What is the issue in you post? Be clear.

You are dancing around the issues in my post.

(COMMENT)

First, it does not say anything about "inside the border of Palestine." In 1949, the term "Palestine" was the title given to territory subject to the Mandate.

Without regard to what you interpretation of the borders or Armistice Lines are, it does NOT apply to the Hostile Arab Palestinians (HoAP) of 1949 or today. There was no agreement other than the four, none of which apply to anyone other than the signatories.

If I'm dancing, then it is because you are trying to twist the language to fit the undeserving HoAP of something they are not properly entitled.

Most Respectfully,
R

First, it does not say anything about "inside the border of Palestine." In 1949, the term "Palestine" was the title given to territory subject to the Mandate.​

Yes it does. you need to read up.

Not only that but the preamble to all four armistice agreements call for peace "in Palestine." And UN resolutions use the term "in Palestine."

But you, reading from your Israeli propaganda handbook, deny the existence of Palestine.

Who signed on behalf of Palestine?

Nobody, they were not part of the war.

Treaties were signed Between Palestine and surrounding Arab nations, and only the Arab nations signed?

Are you sure?

Do you have something to the contrary?

 

[Toddsterpatriot]

P F Tinmore, et al,

What is the issue in you post? Be clear.

(COMMENT)

First, it does not say anything about "inside the border of Palestine." In 1949, the term "Palestine" was the title given to territory subject to the Mandate.

Without regard to what you interpretation of the borders or Armistice Lines are, it does NOT apply to the Hostile Arab Palestinians (HoAP) of 1949 or today. There was no agreement other than the four, none of which apply to anyone other than the signatories.

If I'm dancing, then it is because you are trying to twist the language to fit the undeserving HoAP of something they are not properly entitled.

Most Respectfully,
R

First, it does not say anything about "inside the border of Palestine." In 1949, the term "Palestine" was the title given to territory subject to the Mandate.​

Yes it does. you need to read up.

Not only that but the preamble to all four armistice agreements call for peace "in Palestine." And UN resolutions use the term "in Palestine."

But you, reading from your Israeli propaganda handbook, deny the existence of Palestine.

Who signed on behalf of Palestine?

Nobody, they were not part of the war.

Treaties were signed Between Palestine and surrounding Arab nations, and only the Arab nations signed?

Are you sure?

Do you have something to the contrary?

There were two separate lines. There was the armistice line between Egyptian and Israeli forces. Then there is the international border between Egypt and Palestine. The armistice line laid on top of the border (except Gaza) and since it was specifically not to be a political or territorial boundary, it did not replace or otherwise change that border.

The 1949 UN Armistice Agreement specified that that is Palestine's international border. It also says that the territory inside that border is Palestine.

Now Israel and Egypt can have a peace agreement and do whatever with the armistice line but neither has any authority over Palestine's border.

I only see your claim that Egypt and Israel signed the Armistice agreement.
Were you lying?

 

[P F Tinmore]

First, it does not say anything about "inside the border of Palestine." In 1949, the term "Palestine" was the title given to territory subject to the Mandate.​

Yes it does. you need to read up.

Not only that but the preamble to all four armistice agreements call for peace "in Palestine." And UN resolutions use the term "in Palestine."

But you, reading from your Israeli propaganda handbook, deny the existence of Palestine.

Who signed on behalf of Palestine?

Nobody, they were not part of the war.

Treaties were signed Between Palestine and surrounding Arab nations, and only the Arab nations signed?

Are you sure?

Do you have something to the contrary?

There were two separate lines. There was the armistice line between Egyptian and Israeli forces. Then there is the international border between Egypt and Palestine. The armistice line laid on top of the border (except Gaza) and since it was specifically not to be a political or territorial boundary, it did not replace or otherwise change that border.

The 1949 UN Armistice Agreement specified that that is Palestine's international border. It also says that the territory inside that border is Palestine.

Now Israel and Egypt can have a peace agreement and do whatever with the armistice line but neither has any authority over Palestine's border.

I only see your claim that Egypt and Israel signed the Armistice agreement.
Were you lying?

I don't understand your question.

 

[Toddsterpatriot]

Who signed on behalf of Palestine?

Nobody, they were not part of the war.

Treaties were signed Between Palestine and surrounding Arab nations, and only the Arab nations signed?

Are you sure?

Do you have something to the contrary?

There were two separate lines. There was the armistice line between Egyptian and Israeli forces. Then there is the international border between Egypt and Palestine. The armistice line laid on top of the border (except Gaza) and since it was specifically not to be a political or territorial boundary, it did not replace or otherwise change that border.

The 1949 UN Armistice Agreement specified that that is Palestine's international border. It also says that the territory inside that border is Palestine.

Now Israel and Egypt can have a peace agreement and do whatever with the armistice line but neither has any authority over Palestine's border.

I only see your claim that Egypt and Israel signed the Armistice agreement.
Were you lying?

I don't understand your question.

Egypt and Israel signed the agreement. Palestine didn't.
So were you lying?

 

[Phoenall]

P F Tinmore, et al,

Again, you are 100% Wrong.

You are doing the Israeli shuffle.

There were two separate lines. There was the armistice line between Egyptian and Israeli forces. Then there is the international border between Egypt and Palestine. The armistice line laid on top of the border (except Gaza) and since it was specifically not to be a political or territorial boundary, it did not replace or otherwise change that border.

The 1949 UN Armistice Agreement specified that that is Palestine's international border. It also says that the territory inside that border is Palestine.

Now Israel and Egypt can have a peace agreement and do whatever with the armistice line but neither has any authority over Palestine's border.

(COMMENT)

In the case you cited (as an example) of the Egyptian Armistice and Peace Treaty, the Peace Treaty completely replaces the Armistice.

• Egyptian-Israeli Armistice: Article XII

2. This Agreement having been negotiated and concluded in pursuance of the resolution of the Security Council of 16 November 1948 calling for the establishment of an armistice in order to eliminate the threat to the peace in Palestine and to facilitate the transition from the present truce to permanent peace in Palestine, shall remain in force until a peaceful settlement between the Parties is achieved, except as provided in paragraph 3 of this Article.
​

• Egyptian-Israeli Peace Treaty: Article II

The permanent boundary between Egypt and Israel in the recognized international boundary between Egypt and the former mandated territory of Palestine, as shown on the map at Annex II, without prejudice to the issue of the status of the Gaza Strip. The Parties recognize this boundary as inviolable. Each will respect the territorial integrity of the other, including their territorial waters and airspace.
​

There is a difference between "Palestine" (as you wrote) and the "former mandated territory of Palestine" (as written in the Peace Treaty. There is no reference or relationship to the 1949 Armistice Line --- in the --- 1979 Permanent International Boundary.

(THE BIG CHANGE)

As has been pointed out many (many) times, the 1988 UN General Assembly Resolution 43/177 specifically states:

3. Decides that, effective as of 15 December 1988, the designation "Palestine" should be used in place of the designation "Palestine Liberation Organization" in the United Nations system, without prejudice to the observer status and functions of the Palestine Liberation Organization within the United Nations system, in conformity with relevant United Nations resolutions and practice;
​

Most Respectfully,
R

You are dancing around the issues in my post.

NOPE we are pointing out that you are a LIAR as the peace treaty spells it out

The permanent boundary between Egypt and Israel in the recognized international boundary between Egypt and the former mandated territory of Palestine

Understand yet that there was no nation of Palestine to have borders until they negotiate them

 

[Phoenall]

P F Tinmore, et al,

What is the issue in you post? Be clear.

P F Tinmore, et al,

Again, you are 100% Wrong.

You are doing the Israeli shuffle.

There were two separate lines. There was the armistice line between Egyptian and Israeli forces. Then there is the international border between Egypt and Palestine. The armistice line laid on top of the border (except Gaza) and since it was specifically not to be a political or territorial boundary, it did not replace or otherwise change that border.

The 1949 UN Armistice Agreement specified that that is Palestine's international border. It also says that the territory inside that border is Palestine.

Now Israel and Egypt can have a peace agreement and do whatever with the armistice line but neither has any authority over Palestine's border.

(COMMENT)

In the case you cited (as an example) of the Egyptian Armistice and Peace Treaty, the Peace Treaty completely replaces the Armistice.

• Egyptian-Israeli Armistice: Article XII

2. This Agreement having been negotiated and concluded in pursuance of the resolution of the Security Council of 16 November 1948 calling for the establishment of an armistice in order to eliminate the threat to the peace in Palestine and to facilitate the transition from the present truce to permanent peace in Palestine, shall remain in force until a peaceful settlement between the Parties is achieved, except as provided in paragraph 3 of this Article.
​

• Egyptian-Israeli Peace Treaty: Article II

The permanent boundary between Egypt and Israel in the recognized international boundary between Egypt and the former mandated territory of Palestine, as shown on the map at Annex II, without prejudice to the issue of the status of the Gaza Strip. The Parties recognize this boundary as inviolable. Each will respect the territorial integrity of the other, including their territorial waters and airspace.
​

There is a difference between "Palestine" (as you wrote) and the "former mandated territory of Palestine" (as written in the Peace Treaty. There is no reference or relationship to the 1949 Armistice Line --- in the --- 1979 Permanent International Boundary.

(THE BIG CHANGE)

As has been pointed out many (many) times, the 1988 UN General Assembly Resolution 43/177 specifically states:

3. Decides that, effective as of 15 December 1988, the designation "Palestine" should be used in place of the designation "Palestine Liberation Organization" in the United Nations system, without prejudice to the observer status and functions of the Palestine Liberation Organization within the United Nations system, in conformity with relevant United Nations resolutions and practice;
​

Most Respectfully,
R

You are dancing around the issues in my post.

(COMMENT)

First, it does not say anything about "inside the border of Palestine." In 1949, the term "Palestine" was the title given to territory subject to the Mandate.

Without regard to what you interpretation of the borders or Armistice Lines are, it does NOT apply to the Hostile Arab Palestinians (HoAP) of 1949 or today. There was no agreement other than the four, none of which apply to anyone other than the signatories.

If I'm dancing, then it is because you are trying to twist the language to fit the undeserving HoAP of something they are not properly entitled.

Most Respectfully,
R

First, it does not say anything about "inside the border of Palestine." In 1949, the term "Palestine" was the title given to territory subject to the Mandate.​

Yes it does. you need to read up.

Not only that but the preamble to all four armistice agreements call for peace "in Palestine." And UN resolutions use the term "in Palestine."

But you, reading from your Israeli propaganda handbook, deny the existence of Palestine.

As the peace treaties state

The permanent boundary between Egypt and Israel in the recognized international boundary between Egypt and the former mandated territory of Palestine

Not the nation of Palestine. Why do you find this so hard to understand ?

 

[Phoenall]

Who signed on behalf of Palestine?

Nobody, they were not part of the war.

Treaties were signed Between Palestine and surrounding Arab nations, and only the Arab nations signed?

Are you sure?

Do you have something to the contrary?

There were two separate lines. There was the armistice line between Egyptian and Israeli forces. Then there is the international border between Egypt and Palestine. The armistice line laid on top of the border (except Gaza) and since it was specifically not to be a political or territorial boundary, it did not replace or otherwise change that border.

The 1949 UN Armistice Agreement specified that that is Palestine's international border. It also says that the territory inside that border is Palestine.

Now Israel and Egypt can have a peace agreement and do whatever with the armistice line but neither has any authority over Palestine's border.

I only see your claim that Egypt and Israel signed the Armistice agreement.
Were you lying?

I don't understand your question.

If the treaty designated the nation of Palestine as being part of the treaty then a representative of the nation of Palestine would need to sign and agree to the terms. So either there was no nation of Palestine or the treaty does not exist, which is it ?
But remember what the treaty says about the border.............The permanent boundary between Egypt and Israel in the recognized international boundary between Egypt and the former mandated territory of Palestine

 

[Phoenall]

P F Tinmore, et al,

What is the issue in you post? Be clear.

P F Tinmore, et al,

Again, you are 100% Wrong.

(COMMENT)

In the case you cited (as an example) of the Egyptian Armistice and Peace Treaty, the Peace Treaty completely replaces the Armistice.

• Egyptian-Israeli Armistice: Article XII

2. This Agreement having been negotiated and concluded in pursuance of the resolution of the Security Council of 16 November 1948 calling for the establishment of an armistice in order to eliminate the threat to the peace in Palestine and to facilitate the transition from the present truce to permanent peace in Palestine, shall remain in force until a peaceful settlement between the Parties is achieved, except as provided in paragraph 3 of this Article.
​

• Egyptian-Israeli Peace Treaty: Article II

The permanent boundary between Egypt and Israel in the recognized international boundary between Egypt and the former mandated territory of Palestine, as shown on the map at Annex II, without prejudice to the issue of the status of the Gaza Strip. The Parties recognize this boundary as inviolable. Each will respect the territorial integrity of the other, including their territorial waters and airspace.
​

There is a difference between "Palestine" (as you wrote) and the "former mandated territory of Palestine" (as written in the Peace Treaty. There is no reference or relationship to the 1949 Armistice Line --- in the --- 1979 Permanent International Boundary.

(THE BIG CHANGE)

As has been pointed out many (many) times, the 1988 UN General Assembly Resolution 43/177 specifically states:

3. Decides that, effective as of 15 December 1988, the designation "Palestine" should be used in place of the designation "Palestine Liberation Organization" in the United Nations system, without prejudice to the observer status and functions of the Palestine Liberation Organization within the United Nations system, in conformity with relevant United Nations resolutions and practice;
​

Most Respectfully,
R

You are dancing around the issues in my post.

(COMMENT)

First, it does not say anything about "inside the border of Palestine." In 1949, the term "Palestine" was the title given to territory subject to the Mandate.

Without regard to what you interpretation of the borders or Armistice Lines are, it does NOT apply to the Hostile Arab Palestinians (HoAP) of 1949 or today. There was no agreement other than the four, none of which apply to anyone other than the signatories.

If I'm dancing, then it is because you are trying to twist the language to fit the undeserving HoAP of something they are not properly entitled.

Most Respectfully,
R

First, it does not say anything about "inside the border of Palestine." In 1949, the term "Palestine" was the title given to territory subject to the Mandate.​

Yes it does. you need to read up.

Not only that but the preamble to all four armistice agreements call for peace "in Palestine." And UN resolutions use the term "in Palestine."

But you, reading from your Israeli propaganda handbook, deny the existence of Palestine.

Who signed on behalf of Palestine?

Nobody, they were not part of the war.

Then why did they fight against Israel during it ?

 

[Phoenall]

P F Tinmore, et al,

What is the issue in you post? Be clear.

(COMMENT)

First, it does not say anything about "inside the border of Palestine." In 1949, the term "Palestine" was the title given to territory subject to the Mandate.

Without regard to what you interpretation of the borders or Armistice Lines are, it does NOT apply to the Hostile Arab Palestinians (HoAP) of 1949 or today. There was no agreement other than the four, none of which apply to anyone other than the signatories.

If I'm dancing, then it is because you are trying to twist the language to fit the undeserving HoAP of something they are not properly entitled.

Most Respectfully,
R

First, it does not say anything about "inside the border of Palestine." In 1949, the term "Palestine" was the title given to territory subject to the Mandate.​

Yes it does. you need to read up.

Not only that but the preamble to all four armistice agreements call for peace "in Palestine." And UN resolutions use the term "in Palestine."

But you, reading from your Israeli propaganda handbook, deny the existence of Palestine.

Who signed on behalf of Palestine?

Nobody, they were not part of the war.

Treaties were signed Between Palestine and surrounding Arab nations, and only the Arab nations signed?

Are you sure?

Do you have something to the contrary?

YES the actual treaty

The permanent boundary between Egypt and Israel in the recognized international boundary between Egypt and the former mandated territory of Palestine

 

[P F Tinmore]

Nobody, they were not part of the war.

Treaties were signed Between Palestine and surrounding Arab nations, and only the Arab nations signed?

Are you sure?

Do you have something to the contrary?

There were two separate lines. There was the armistice line between Egyptian and Israeli forces. Then there is the international border between Egypt and Palestine. The armistice line laid on top of the border (except Gaza) and since it was specifically not to be a political or territorial boundary, it did not replace or otherwise change that border.

The 1949 UN Armistice Agreement specified that that is Palestine's international border. It also says that the territory inside that border is Palestine.

Now Israel and Egypt can have a peace agreement and do whatever with the armistice line but neither has any authority over Palestine's border.

I only see your claim that Egypt and Israel signed the Armistice agreement.
Were you lying?

I don't understand your question.

Egypt and Israel signed the agreement. Palestine didn't.
So were you lying?

That's what I said.

 

[P F Tinmore]

P F Tinmore, et al,

Again, you are 100% Wrong.

You are doing the Israeli shuffle.

There were two separate lines. There was the armistice line between Egyptian and Israeli forces. Then there is the international border between Egypt and Palestine. The armistice line laid on top of the border (except Gaza) and since it was specifically not to be a political or territorial boundary, it did not replace or otherwise change that border.

The 1949 UN Armistice Agreement specified that that is Palestine's international border. It also says that the territory inside that border is Palestine.

Now Israel and Egypt can have a peace agreement and do whatever with the armistice line but neither has any authority over Palestine's border.

(COMMENT)

In the case you cited (as an example) of the Egyptian Armistice and Peace Treaty, the Peace Treaty completely replaces the Armistice.

• Egyptian-Israeli Armistice: Article XII

2. This Agreement having been negotiated and concluded in pursuance of the resolution of the Security Council of 16 November 1948 calling for the establishment of an armistice in order to eliminate the threat to the peace in Palestine and to facilitate the transition from the present truce to permanent peace in Palestine, shall remain in force until a peaceful settlement between the Parties is achieved, except as provided in paragraph 3 of this Article.
​

• Egyptian-Israeli Peace Treaty: Article II

The permanent boundary between Egypt and Israel in the recognized international boundary between Egypt and the former mandated territory of Palestine, as shown on the map at Annex II, without prejudice to the issue of the status of the Gaza Strip. The Parties recognize this boundary as inviolable. Each will respect the territorial integrity of the other, including their territorial waters and airspace.
​

There is a difference between "Palestine" (as you wrote) and the "former mandated territory of Palestine" (as written in the Peace Treaty. There is no reference or relationship to the 1949 Armistice Line --- in the --- 1979 Permanent International Boundary.

(THE BIG CHANGE)

As has been pointed out many (many) times, the 1988 UN General Assembly Resolution 43/177 specifically states:

3. Decides that, effective as of 15 December 1988, the designation "Palestine" should be used in place of the designation "Palestine Liberation Organization" in the United Nations system, without prejudice to the observer status and functions of the Palestine Liberation Organization within the United Nations system, in conformity with relevant United Nations resolutions and practice;
​

Most Respectfully,
R

You are dancing around the issues in my post.

NOPE we are pointing out that you are a LIAR as the peace treaty spells it out

The permanent boundary between Egypt and Israel in the recognized international boundary between Egypt and the former mandated territory of Palestine

Understand yet that there was no nation of Palestine to have borders until they negotiate them

You could say the same thing about Lebanon, Syria, Jordan, and Iraq. They were all former mandated territories.

So?

 

[Phoenall]

Treaties were signed Between Palestine and surrounding Arab nations, and only the Arab nations signed?

Are you sure?

Do you have something to the contrary?

There were two separate lines. There was the armistice line between Egyptian and Israeli forces. Then there is the international border between Egypt and Palestine. The armistice line laid on top of the border (except Gaza) and since it was specifically not to be a political or territorial boundary, it did not replace or otherwise change that border.

The 1949 UN Armistice Agreement specified that that is Palestine's international border. It also says that the territory inside that border is Palestine.

Now Israel and Egypt can have a peace agreement and do whatever with the armistice line but neither has any authority over Palestine's border.

I only see your claim that Egypt and Israel signed the Armistice agreement.
Were you lying?

I don't understand your question.

Egypt and Israel signed the agreement. Palestine didn't.
So were you lying?

That's what I said.

So why didn't the nation of Palestine sign the agreement that affected its alleged borders ?

 

[Phoenall]

P F Tinmore, et al,

Again, you are 100% Wrong.

You are doing the Israeli shuffle.

There were two separate lines. There was the armistice line between Egyptian and Israeli forces. Then there is the international border between Egypt and Palestine. The armistice line laid on top of the border (except Gaza) and since it was specifically not to be a political or territorial boundary, it did not replace or otherwise change that border.

The 1949 UN Armistice Agreement specified that that is Palestine's international border. It also says that the territory inside that border is Palestine.

Now Israel and Egypt can have a peace agreement and do whatever with the armistice line but neither has any authority over Palestine's border.

(COMMENT)

In the case you cited (as an example) of the Egyptian Armistice and Peace Treaty, the Peace Treaty completely replaces the Armistice.

• Egyptian-Israeli Armistice: Article XII

2. This Agreement having been negotiated and concluded in pursuance of the resolution of the Security Council of 16 November 1948 calling for the establishment of an armistice in order to eliminate the threat to the peace in Palestine and to facilitate the transition from the present truce to permanent peace in Palestine, shall remain in force until a peaceful settlement between the Parties is achieved, except as provided in paragraph 3 of this Article.
​

• Egyptian-Israeli Peace Treaty: Article II

The permanent boundary between Egypt and Israel in the recognized international boundary between Egypt and the former mandated territory of Palestine, as shown on the map at Annex II, without prejudice to the issue of the status of the Gaza Strip. The Parties recognize this boundary as inviolable. Each will respect the territorial integrity of the other, including their territorial waters and airspace.
​

There is a difference between "Palestine" (as you wrote) and the "former mandated territory of Palestine" (as written in the Peace Treaty. There is no reference or relationship to the 1949 Armistice Line --- in the --- 1979 Permanent International Boundary.

(THE BIG CHANGE)

As has been pointed out many (many) times, the 1988 UN General Assembly Resolution 43/177 specifically states:

3. Decides that, effective as of 15 December 1988, the designation "Palestine" should be used in place of the designation "Palestine Liberation Organization" in the United Nations system, without prejudice to the observer status and functions of the Palestine Liberation Organization within the United Nations system, in conformity with relevant United Nations resolutions and practice;
​

Most Respectfully,
R

You are dancing around the issues in my post.

NOPE we are pointing out that you are a LIAR as the peace treaty spells it out

The permanent boundary between Egypt and Israel in the recognized international boundary between Egypt and the former mandated territory of Palestine

Understand yet that there was no nation of Palestine to have borders until they negotiate them

You could say the same thing about Lebanon, Syria, Jordan, and Iraq. They were all former mandated territories.

So?

I am not saying it am I, it is the world saying that the treaty says the border of Israel and Egypt is the same as that of the former mandated territory of Palestine .



Once again international laws and treaties say that you are a LIAR and that the nation of Palestine did not exist until 1988

 

[Phoenall]

P F Tinmore, et al,

Again, you are 100% Wrong.

You are doing the Israeli shuffle.

There were two separate lines. There was the armistice line between Egyptian and Israeli forces. Then there is the international border between Egypt and Palestine. The armistice line laid on top of the border (except Gaza) and since it was specifically not to be a political or territorial boundary, it did not replace or otherwise change that border.

The 1949 UN Armistice Agreement specified that that is Palestine's international border. It also says that the territory inside that border is Palestine.

Now Israel and Egypt can have a peace agreement and do whatever with the armistice line but neither has any authority over Palestine's border.

(COMMENT)

In the case you cited (as an example) of the Egyptian Armistice and Peace Treaty, the Peace Treaty completely replaces the Armistice.

• Egyptian-Israeli Armistice: Article XII

2. This Agreement having been negotiated and concluded in pursuance of the resolution of the Security Council of 16 November 1948 calling for the establishment of an armistice in order to eliminate the threat to the peace in Palestine and to facilitate the transition from the present truce to permanent peace in Palestine, shall remain in force until a peaceful settlement between the Parties is achieved, except as provided in paragraph 3 of this Article.
​

• Egyptian-Israeli Peace Treaty: Article II

The permanent boundary between Egypt and Israel in the recognized international boundary between Egypt and the former mandated territory of Palestine, as shown on the map at Annex II, without prejudice to the issue of the status of the Gaza Strip. The Parties recognize this boundary as inviolable. Each will respect the territorial integrity of the other, including their territorial waters and airspace.
​

There is a difference between "Palestine" (as you wrote) and the "former mandated territory of Palestine" (as written in the Peace Treaty. There is no reference or relationship to the 1949 Armistice Line --- in the --- 1979 Permanent International Boundary.

(THE BIG CHANGE)

As has been pointed out many (many) times, the 1988 UN General Assembly Resolution 43/177 specifically states:

3. Decides that, effective as of 15 December 1988, the designation "Palestine" should be used in place of the designation "Palestine Liberation Organization" in the United Nations system, without prejudice to the observer status and functions of the Palestine Liberation Organization within the United Nations system, in conformity with relevant United Nations resolutions and practice;
​

Most Respectfully,
R

You are dancing around the issues in my post.

NOPE we are pointing out that you are a LIAR as the peace treaty spells it out

The permanent boundary between Egypt and Israel in the recognized international boundary between Egypt and the former mandated territory of Palestine

Understand yet that there was no nation of Palestine to have borders until they negotiate them

You could say the same thing about Lebanon, Syria, Jordan, and Iraq. They were all former mandated territories.

So?

I am not saying it am I, it is the world saying that the treaty says the border of Israel and Egypt is the same as that of the former mandated territory of Palestine .



Once again international laws and treaties say that you are a LIAR and that the nation of Palestine did not exist until 1988

 

[P F Tinmore]

P F Tinmore, et al,

Again, you are 100% Wrong.

You are doing the Israeli shuffle.

There were two separate lines. There was the armistice line between Egyptian and Israeli forces. Then there is the international border between Egypt and Palestine. The armistice line laid on top of the border (except Gaza) and since it was specifically not to be a political or territorial boundary, it did not replace or otherwise change that border.

The 1949 UN Armistice Agreement specified that that is Palestine's international border. It also says that the territory inside that border is Palestine.

Now Israel and Egypt can have a peace agreement and do whatever with the armistice line but neither has any authority over Palestine's border.

(COMMENT)

In the case you cited (as an example) of the Egyptian Armistice and Peace Treaty, the Peace Treaty completely replaces the Armistice.

• Egyptian-Israeli Armistice: Article XII

2. This Agreement having been negotiated and concluded in pursuance of the resolution of the Security Council of 16 November 1948 calling for the establishment of an armistice in order to eliminate the threat to the peace in Palestine and to facilitate the transition from the present truce to permanent peace in Palestine, shall remain in force until a peaceful settlement between the Parties is achieved, except as provided in paragraph 3 of this Article.
​

• Egyptian-Israeli Peace Treaty: Article II

The permanent boundary between Egypt and Israel in the recognized international boundary between Egypt and the former mandated territory of Palestine, as shown on the map at Annex II, without prejudice to the issue of the status of the Gaza Strip. The Parties recognize this boundary as inviolable. Each will respect the territorial integrity of the other, including their territorial waters and airspace.
​

There is a difference between "Palestine" (as you wrote) and the "former mandated territory of Palestine" (as written in the Peace Treaty. There is no reference or relationship to the 1949 Armistice Line --- in the --- 1979 Permanent International Boundary.

(THE BIG CHANGE)

As has been pointed out many (many) times, the 1988 UN General Assembly Resolution 43/177 specifically states:

3. Decides that, effective as of 15 December 1988, the designation "Palestine" should be used in place of the designation "Palestine Liberation Organization" in the United Nations system, without prejudice to the observer status and functions of the Palestine Liberation Organization within the United Nations system, in conformity with relevant United Nations resolutions and practice;
​

Most Respectfully,
R

You are dancing around the issues in my post.

NOPE we are pointing out that you are a LIAR as the peace treaty spells it out

The permanent boundary between Egypt and Israel in the recognized international boundary between Egypt and the former mandated territory of Palestine

Understand yet that there was no nation of Palestine to have borders until they negotiate them

You could say the same thing about Lebanon, Syria, Jordan, and Iraq. They were all former mandated territories.

So?

I am not saying it am I, it is the world saying that the treaty says the border of Israel and Egypt is the same as that of the former mandated territory of Palestine .



Once again international laws and treaties say that you are a LIAR and that the nation of Palestine did not exist until 1988

It was not a world or UN treaty. It was a treaty bought for Israel by the US. The wording is what the US and Israel wanted. Nobody else had anything to do with it. It is a "say so" border.

 

[P F Tinmore]

P F Tinmore, et al,

Again, you are 100% Wrong.

You are doing the Israeli shuffle.

There were two separate lines. There was the armistice line between Egyptian and Israeli forces. Then there is the international border between Egypt and Palestine. The armistice line laid on top of the border (except Gaza) and since it was specifically not to be a political or territorial boundary, it did not replace or otherwise change that border.

The 1949 UN Armistice Agreement specified that that is Palestine's international border. It also says that the territory inside that border is Palestine.

Now Israel and Egypt can have a peace agreement and do whatever with the armistice line but neither has any authority over Palestine's border.

(COMMENT)

In the case you cited (as an example) of the Egyptian Armistice and Peace Treaty, the Peace Treaty completely replaces the Armistice.

• Egyptian-Israeli Armistice: Article XII

2. This Agreement having been negotiated and concluded in pursuance of the resolution of the Security Council of 16 November 1948 calling for the establishment of an armistice in order to eliminate the threat to the peace in Palestine and to facilitate the transition from the present truce to permanent peace in Palestine, shall remain in force until a peaceful settlement between the Parties is achieved, except as provided in paragraph 3 of this Article.
​

• Egyptian-Israeli Peace Treaty: Article II

The permanent boundary between Egypt and Israel in the recognized international boundary between Egypt and the former mandated territory of Palestine, as shown on the map at Annex II, without prejudice to the issue of the status of the Gaza Strip. The Parties recognize this boundary as inviolable. Each will respect the territorial integrity of the other, including their territorial waters and airspace.
​

There is a difference between "Palestine" (as you wrote) and the "former mandated territory of Palestine" (as written in the Peace Treaty. There is no reference or relationship to the 1949 Armistice Line --- in the --- 1979 Permanent International Boundary.

(THE BIG CHANGE)

As has been pointed out many (many) times, the 1988 UN General Assembly Resolution 43/177 specifically states:

3. Decides that, effective as of 15 December 1988, the designation "Palestine" should be used in place of the designation "Palestine Liberation Organization" in the United Nations system, without prejudice to the observer status and functions of the Palestine Liberation Organization within the United Nations system, in conformity with relevant United Nations resolutions and practice;
​

Most Respectfully,
R

You are dancing around the issues in my post.

NOPE we are pointing out that you are a LIAR as the peace treaty spells it out

The permanent boundary between Egypt and Israel in the recognized international boundary between Egypt and the former mandated territory of Palestine

Understand yet that there was no nation of Palestine to have borders until they negotiate them

You could say the same thing about Lebanon, Syria, Jordan, and Iraq. They were all former mandated territories.

So?

I am not saying it am I, it is the world saying that the treaty says the border of Israel and Egypt is the same as that of the former mandated territory of Palestine .



Once again international laws and treaties say that you are a LIAR and that the nation of Palestine did not exist until 1988

Guided​

by the purposes and principles of the Charter,

Recalling its relevant resolutions which affirm the right of the Palestinian people to self-determination,

1. Reaffirms the inalienable rights of the Palestinian people in Palestine, including:

(a) The right to self-determination without external interference;

(b) The right to national independence and sovereignty;

2. Reaffirms also the inalienable right of the Palestinians to return to their homes and property from which they have been displaced and uprooted, and calls for their return;

3. Emphasizes that full respect for and the realization of these inalienable rights of the Palestinian people are indispensable for the solution of the question of Palestine;

4. Recognizes that the Palestinian people is a principal party in the establishment of a just and lasting peace in the Middle East;

5. Further recognizes the right of the Palestinian people to regain its rights by all means in accordance with the purposes and principles of the Charter of the United Nations;

6. Appeals to all States and international organizations to extend their support to the Palestinian people in its struggle to restore its rights, in accordance with the Charter;

UN General Assembly Resolution 3236 and UN General Assembly Resolution 3237​

Why would the UN use the term "in Palestine" in 1974 unless there was a Palestine?

Israel has always denied the existence of Palestine. You are reading from Israel's playbook.

 

[P F Tinmore]

Do you have something to the contrary?

There were two separate lines. There was the armistice line between Egyptian and Israeli forces. Then there is the international border between Egypt and Palestine. The armistice line laid on top of the border (except Gaza) and since it was specifically not to be a political or territorial boundary, it did not replace or otherwise change that border.

The 1949 UN Armistice Agreement specified that that is Palestine's international border. It also says that the territory inside that border is Palestine.

Now Israel and Egypt can have a peace agreement and do whatever with the armistice line but neither has any authority over Palestine's border.

I only see your claim that Egypt and Israel signed the Armistice agreement.
Were you lying?

I don't understand your question.

Egypt and Israel signed the agreement. Palestine didn't.
So were you lying?

That's what I said.

So why didn't the nation of Palestine sign the agreement that affected its alleged borders ?

Why should that be a requirement? That is an established border that is not disputed.

 

[Phoenall]

P F Tinmore, et al,

Again, you are 100% Wrong.

(COMMENT)

In the case you cited (as an example) of the Egyptian Armistice and Peace Treaty, the Peace Treaty completely replaces the Armistice.

• Egyptian-Israeli Armistice: Article XII

2. This Agreement having been negotiated and concluded in pursuance of the resolution of the Security Council of 16 November 1948 calling for the establishment of an armistice in order to eliminate the threat to the peace in Palestine and to facilitate the transition from the present truce to permanent peace in Palestine, shall remain in force until a peaceful settlement between the Parties is achieved, except as provided in paragraph 3 of this Article.
​

• Egyptian-Israeli Peace Treaty: Article II

The permanent boundary between Egypt and Israel in the recognized international boundary between Egypt and the former mandated territory of Palestine, as shown on the map at Annex II, without prejudice to the issue of the status of the Gaza Strip. The Parties recognize this boundary as inviolable. Each will respect the territorial integrity of the other, including their territorial waters and airspace.
​

There is a difference between "Palestine" (as you wrote) and the "former mandated territory of Palestine" (as written in the Peace Treaty. There is no reference or relationship to the 1949 Armistice Line --- in the --- 1979 Permanent International Boundary.

(THE BIG CHANGE)

As has been pointed out many (many) times, the 1988 UN General Assembly Resolution 43/177 specifically states:

3. Decides that, effective as of 15 December 1988, the designation "Palestine" should be used in place of the designation "Palestine Liberation Organization" in the United Nations system, without prejudice to the observer status and functions of the Palestine Liberation Organization within the United Nations system, in conformity with relevant United Nations resolutions and practice;
​

Most Respectfully,
R

You are dancing around the issues in my post.

NOPE we are pointing out that you are a LIAR as the peace treaty spells it out

The permanent boundary between Egypt and Israel in the recognized international boundary between Egypt and the former mandated territory of Palestine

Understand yet that there was no nation of Palestine to have borders until they negotiate them

You could say the same thing about Lebanon, Syria, Jordan, and Iraq. They were all former mandated territories.

So?

I am not saying it am I, it is the world saying that the treaty says the border of Israel and Egypt is the same as that of the former mandated territory of Palestine .



Once again international laws and treaties say that you are a LIAR and that the nation of Palestine did not exist until 1988

It was not a world or UN treaty. It was a treaty bought for Israel by the US. The wording is what the US and Israel wanted. Nobody else had anything to do with it. It is a "say so" border.

BULLSHIT

 

[Phoenall]

P F Tinmore, et al,

Again, you are 100% Wrong.

(COMMENT)

In the case you cited (as an example) of the Egyptian Armistice and Peace Treaty, the Peace Treaty completely replaces the Armistice.

• Egyptian-Israeli Armistice: Article XII

2. This Agreement having been negotiated and concluded in pursuance of the resolution of the Security Council of 16 November 1948 calling for the establishment of an armistice in order to eliminate the threat to the peace in Palestine and to facilitate the transition from the present truce to permanent peace in Palestine, shall remain in force until a peaceful settlement between the Parties is achieved, except as provided in paragraph 3 of this Article.
​

• Egyptian-Israeli Peace Treaty: Article II

The permanent boundary between Egypt and Israel in the recognized international boundary between Egypt and the former mandated territory of Palestine, as shown on the map at Annex II, without prejudice to the issue of the status of the Gaza Strip. The Parties recognize this boundary as inviolable. Each will respect the territorial integrity of the other, including their territorial waters and airspace.
​

There is a difference between "Palestine" (as you wrote) and the "former mandated territory of Palestine" (as written in the Peace Treaty. There is no reference or relationship to the 1949 Armistice Line --- in the --- 1979 Permanent International Boundary.

(THE BIG CHANGE)

As has been pointed out many (many) times, the 1988 UN General Assembly Resolution 43/177 specifically states:

3. Decides that, effective as of 15 December 1988, the designation "Palestine" should be used in place of the designation "Palestine Liberation Organization" in the United Nations system, without prejudice to the observer status and functions of the Palestine Liberation Organization within the United Nations system, in conformity with relevant United Nations resolutions and practice;
​

Most Respectfully,
R

You are dancing around the issues in my post.

NOPE we are pointing out that you are a LIAR as the peace treaty spells it out

The permanent boundary between Egypt and Israel in the recognized international boundary between Egypt and the former mandated territory of Palestine

Understand yet that there was no nation of Palestine to have borders until they negotiate them

You could say the same thing about Lebanon, Syria, Jordan, and Iraq. They were all former mandated territories.

So?

I am not saying it am I, it is the world saying that the treaty says the border of Israel and Egypt is the same as that of the former mandated territory of Palestine .



Once again international laws and treaties say that you are a LIAR and that the nation of Palestine did not exist until 1988

Guided
by the purposes and principles of the Charter,

Recalling its relevant resolutions which affirm the right of the Palestinian people to self-determination,

1. Reaffirms the inalienable rights of the Palestinian people in Palestine, including:

(a) The right to self-determination without external interference;

(b) The right to national independence and sovereignty;

2. Reaffirms also the inalienable right of the Palestinians to return to their homes and property from which they have been displaced and uprooted, and calls for their return;

3. Emphasizes that full respect for and the realization of these inalienable rights of the Palestinian people are indispensable for the solution of the question of Palestine;

4. Recognizes that the Palestinian people is a principal party in the establishment of a just and lasting peace in the Middle East;

5. Further recognizes the right of the Palestinian people to regain its rights by all means in accordance with the purposes and principles of the Charter of the United Nations;

6. Appeals to all States and international organizations to extend their support to the Palestinian people in its struggle to restore its rights, in accordance with the Charter;

UN General Assembly Resolution 3236 and UN General Assembly Resolution 3237​

Why would the UN use the term "in Palestine" in 1974 unless there was a Palestine?

Israel has always denied the existence of Palestine. You are reading from Israel's playbook.

Because that was the term in general usage for the area, it was easier than saying the " former mandated territory of Palestine ". The UN charter says that International laws of 1922, 1923 and 1924 apply to Israel and the UN fully supports them.


You are reading islamonazi propaganda and LIES

 

[Phoenall]

There were two separate lines. There was the armistice line between Egyptian and Israeli forces. Then there is the international border between Egypt and Palestine. The armistice line laid on top of the border (except Gaza) and since it was specifically not to be a political or territorial boundary, it did not replace or otherwise change that border.

The 1949 UN Armistice Agreement specified that that is Palestine's international border. It also says that the territory inside that border is Palestine.

Now Israel and Egypt can have a peace agreement and do whatever with the armistice line but neither has any authority over Palestine's border.

I only see your claim that Egypt and Israel signed the Armistice agreement.
Were you lying?

I don't understand your question.

Egypt and Israel signed the agreement. Palestine didn't.
So were you lying?

That's what I said.

So why didn't the nation of Palestine sign the agreement that affected its alleged borders ?

Why should that be a requirement? That is an established border that is not disputed.

Because the UN resolutions say so, and you being a stickler for UN resolutions should know this. So why didn't Palestine sign the peace treaty if it affected its alleged borders ?