Well tipsy is wrong. It's that simple. The contract is implied and children's share in it is implied.
Nope, its just you citing useless pseudo-legal gibberish of your own invention.
Your claims about children and marriage have changed over and over and you desperately scramble to different terms you don't understand, hoping one fits.
First you said children were 'married to their parents'. That was obvious horseshit. Then you said that marriage was a 'minor contract' for children. Which has hapless ignorance. Then you said that children are 'parties to the marriage contract'. But that was nonsense. Then you said they were 'third party beneficiaries'. Which was obvious gibberish.
Now your latest fixation is 'implied contract'. Which doesn't work, as children can't enter into implied contracts. Only explicit ones.
If your claims about contract law were valid, you wouldn't have had to keep changing them. You don't know the first thing about contract law.
Implied contracts are as valid as written ones. So brush up on contract law.
You're not citing contract law. You're citing yourself.
Show us one law or court case in which children are recognized as parties to the marriage of their parents. You can't. You made that up.
Then brush up on the Infant Doctrine and necessities. A child CANNOT be deprived of a necessity via a contract of any kind. Such a contract is wholly invalid.
The Infancy Doctrine is Business Law. It has nothing to do with marriage. Nor can you show us one instance of the Infancy Doctrine ever being applied to marriage. You made that up.
And of course, no law nor court recognizes children as a party to the marriage of their parents.
You made that up too.
Even if the contract is found "to not include children". If any contract exists whose terms produce onerous terms to children, who are in fact involved in marriage, that contract isn't merely voidable upon challenge; it is void immediately before its ink is dry. So, in the purest legal technical terms, the minute two gay people fill out a marriage license at any clerk's office, before the ink is dry, that contract is already void.
Nope. None of that is recognized by any law or any court. You made it up. And thus legally void pseudo-legal gibberish.
Which explains why same sex marriage legal in 50 of 50 states. And nothing you've typed on the topic is valid anywhere.