The difference is subtle but would be judged by a competent debate judge.
#2 is not making a statement of fact but is expressing an attribute of Republicanism. "All Republicans oppose healthcare" is an opinion about Republicans with no way to oppose it or confirm it.
#7 is making a statement that "All the Democrats supported that program" which if not true can easily be refuted by X and Y did not vote for that program. Or if there were no 'no' votes, then the statement is accurate without drawing any inference about the motives or attributes. of the Democrats. It is speaking of a specific program.
I should, however, have been more specific that I was referring to Democrats that would have the power to support or not support the program. It was intended to be similar to #1 in which all the Republicans with the power to support or oppose it did in fact oppose Obamacare.
Well, since you weren't specific, there is
more reason for both #2 and #7 to be considered the same.
You can support a program without voting for it...as in a poll. So claiming that "all Democrats supported that program" would be as difficult to prove as #2 saying that All Republicans oppose healthcare.
Since you weren't specific in either case, both are impossible to oppose or confirm....yet you only thought the one about Republicans was ad hominem even if you then admit that if you were addressing Republicans in Congress, it would be possible to prove since all Congressmen voted against Obamacare. That would then disqualify it as ad hominem.
Yes, I should have been more specific. But in the context in which I intended the statement to relate:
If you say 'all Democrats supported that program' meaning literally all Democrats, then it is ad hominem because you can't possibly know that.
You are assuming something about Democrats that cannot be substantiated.
But if you say "all the Democrats voted for that program" within the context of who did and who didn't vote for the program, that is not ad hominem. It is a simple statement of fact that draw no conclusions about Democrats other than how they voted.
You can say, I doubt many Democrats would vote for that candidate and that is not ad hominem. To say
Democrats wouldn't vote for that candidate is ad hominem.
No, no, a thousand times no. What you're describing above is blanket generalization.
- "'all Democrats supported that program"
.... is the equivalent of "Liberals always.... " or "Conservatives are all ..... " or "Blacks don't ......" --- it doesn't even matter what value we give the ellipsis, negative or positive -- it's a broad-brush statement and as such, a fallacy. Moreover the idea that "all Democrats supported that program" depending on context could certainly be uttered as a compliment. It would still be fallacious as generalization, but it's certainly not ad hom. And again -- third person.
Ad hom is not the only fallacy there is yanno. I still get the idea you're trying to shoehorn everything into it.
Nope, not at all. And yes there are dozens of fallacies that we could be discussing and some of them do in fact overlap. This thread however is about ad hominem and not about other fallacies.
But please read the definition in the OP carefully--especailly the part I quoted. THAT is what we are discussing here. Refute it if you can, but until somebody gives me a good reason to believe that is not a good definition--one similar to what I have been using for a lot of decades now and have never steered my students wrong with it--then I will continued to believe that ad hominem is ANYTHING that diverts the discussion to the person making the argument or holding the opinion rather than the argument or opinion itself.
I've already read your OP's definition when I first posted here, and dismissed it as unreal. Everything after that has been reiteration of
why it's unreal. By way of refuting it I also posted several competing definitions (as have others) that have
unanimously disputed your chosen definition.
It seems to this observer you must be taking the translation "to the man" from the Latin, literally and without the context of the normal dynamics of any debate --- i.e. you seem to be proffering the view that "any reference to or about one's adversary, regardless of intent, is ad hom".
Addressing one's adversary directly is inevitable in an exchange of ideas, whether done so derogatorily or not, and whether on the topic or not. The mere fact that I may make reference to you personally while making a point, does not and cannot be, in and of itself, defined to constitute ad hominem. If it IS done so under the guise of purporting to refute your argument via character assassination -- that's ad hominem, or perhaps we must needs more correctly call it
Argumentum ad hominem. But if it's not there for that purpose -- as in the first sentence of the paragraph above this one -- then it's not.
Matter of fact that sentence above is merely one more angle to understand your position, so to call it ad hominem would be absurd.