Now it's a basic law: The State of Israel is the national home of the Jewish people

Basic Law: Israel as the Nation State of the Jewish People

1 — Basic principles

A. The land of Israel is the historical homeland of the Jewish people, in which the State of Israel was established.

The jews of today's Israel are not in any way representative of the Jews of the Bible. Far from it.

So, no need in reading beyind point 1.

In Israel that's called "gave his professional opinion and walked away".
 
If it's Your adopted country, then by definition different laws apply to You.

Oh? How so?

I can't wait for your response!!

Just for clarity, no, I don't live in Israel.
 

It's basic knowledge of Hebrew, a simple word.
Coming from the root P-L -S(h) - meaning invade.
PLS(h)TI - means simply invader.


Philistine: This has been used to mean "uneducated person" since the 19th century. That use in English originates with a conflict between university academics and the townsfolk of Jena, Germany, in the 17th century, apparently based on the Book of Judges phrase “the Philistines are upon you.” The Philistines - in Hebrew plishtim - were a coastal adversary of ancient Israel whose name simply meant "invaders."
Hebrew words in English you didn't even know you knew

What a crock of shit!

It MAY have been used in that way by racist Hebrew speakers in that way but how would you explain away the Latin and Greek name?

Nothing changes with them there Hebrew speakers eh!

Did I say foreign language?
I said in the "native", and in the native languages 'Palestinian' means - foreign invader.

That's the meaning like it or not.

Well, that's what one would call an own goal you idiot!

The first appearance of the term "Palestine" was from the Greeks NOT Hebrews!

So, those foreign invading Hebrews ... Care to finish the rest?

:290968001256257790-final:
You can try and find me another meaning in the native languages of Canaan...oh but wait You'll have to go to Hebrew.:04:

Here, let me try and help you before you end up looking like a complete ******* moron...

The first appearance of the term "Palestine" was from the Greeks NOT Hebrews!

Maybe it's bad light, maybe its your failing eyesight, maybe it is your 'Israel First' blinkers that stopped you reading that so I thought I would make the text bold for you!
 
If it's Your adopted country, then by definition different laws apply to You.

Oh? How so?

I can't wait for your response!!

Just for clarity, no, I don't live in Israel.

Did You get Spaniard nationality the day You were born?
You went through a discriminatory process of normalization.
 
In Israel that's called "gave his professional opinion and walked away".
Are You of the opinion that Jews are described as holy pink bunnies in the Bible?

I've read just about every Bible from the Ethiopian Bible, the Christian Bible including their variants, to the Jewish Bible. And many many more modern and ancient theologic works, including extra-biblical history and text. I'm competent linguistically as well as competent to compare and recall and to place into perspective with the times as well as the cirtcumstances of providing their writings. And I Iike to consider my geo-political awareness far beyond average.

Mine is an educated view.

Be thankful I stay out of these Israeli propaganda threads.
 
Last edited:
If it's Your adopted country, then by definition different laws apply to You.

Oh? How so?

I can't wait for your response!!

Just for clarity, no, I don't live in Israel.

Did You get Spaniard nationality the day You were born?
You went through a discriminatory process of normalization.

I don't live in Spain idiot! See, another fail!

You are suggesting that my adopted country, by definition, applies different laws to me, and I am telling you that the SAME laws apply to me as it does to natives...

As I said, I do NOT live in Israel where, yes, what you are saying would be right!

And that is the WHOLE point of this thread!!!
 
It's basic knowledge of Hebrew, a simple word.
Coming from the root P-L -S(h) - meaning invade.
PLS(h)TI - means simply invader.


Philistine: This has been used to mean "uneducated person" since the 19th century. That use in English originates with a conflict between university academics and the townsfolk of Jena, Germany, in the 17th century, apparently based on the Book of Judges phrase “the Philistines are upon you.” The Philistines - in Hebrew plishtim - were a coastal adversary of ancient Israel whose name simply meant "invaders."
Hebrew words in English you didn't even know you knew

What a crock of shit!

It MAY have been used in that way by racist Hebrew speakers in that way but how would you explain away the Latin and Greek name?

Nothing changes with them there Hebrew speakers eh!

Did I say foreign language?
I said in the "native", and in the native languages 'Palestinian' means - foreign invader.

That's the meaning like it or not.

Well, that's what one would call an own goal you idiot!

The first appearance of the term "Palestine" was from the Greeks NOT Hebrews!

So, those foreign invading Hebrews ... Care to finish the rest?

:290968001256257790-final:
You can try and find me another meaning in the native languages of Canaan...oh but wait You'll have to go to Hebrew.:04:

Here, let me try and help you before you end up looking like a complete ******* moron...

The first appearance of the term "Palestine" was from the Greeks NOT Hebrews!

Maybe it's bad light, maybe its your failing eyesight, maybe it is your 'Israel First' blinkers that stopped you reading that so I thought I would make the text bold for you!

And does that prove Greek to be the native language of Canaan or that 'Palestinian' does not mean invaders?

You keep dancing about simple facts, but there's no substance.
 
If it's Your adopted country, then by definition different laws apply to You.

Oh? How so?

I can't wait for your response!!

Just for clarity, no, I don't live in Israel.

Did You get Spaniard nationality the day You were born?
You went through a discriminatory process of normalization.

I don't live in Spain idiot! See, another fail!

You are suggesting that my adopted country, by definition, applies different laws to me, and I am telling you that the SAME laws apply to me as it does to natives...

As I said, I do NOT live in Israel where, yes, what you are saying would be right!

And that is the WHOLE point of this thread!!!
:huh1:
So only in Israel a foreign national goes through normalization to get citizenship?
...the ridiculousness of the claims against Israel.
 
Last edited:
What a crock of shit!

It MAY have been used in that way by racist Hebrew speakers in that way but how would you explain away the Latin and Greek name?

Nothing changes with them there Hebrew speakers eh!

Did I say foreign language?
I said in the "native", and in the native languages 'Palestinian' means - foreign invader.

That's the meaning like it or not.

Well, that's what one would call an own goal you idiot!

The first appearance of the term "Palestine" was from the Greeks NOT Hebrews!

So, those foreign invading Hebrews ... Care to finish the rest?

:290968001256257790-final:
You can try and find me another meaning in the native languages of Canaan...oh but wait You'll have to go to Hebrew.:04:

Here, let me try and help you before you end up looking like a complete ******* moron...

The first appearance of the term "Palestine" was from the Greeks NOT Hebrews!

Maybe it's bad light, maybe its your failing eyesight, maybe it is your 'Israel First' blinkers that stopped you reading that so I thought I would make the text bold for you!

And does that prove Greek to be the native language of Canaan or that 'Palestinian' does not mean invaders?

You keep dancing about simple facts, but there's no substance.

The simple facts are you are a proven liar...

Would you like to make the same lie, sorry, statement, that "Palestine" is a Hebrew word in face of the fact that it ISN'T?
 
If it's Your adopted country, then by definition different laws apply to You.

Oh? How so?

I can't wait for your response!!

Just for clarity, no, I don't live in Israel.

Did You get Spaniard nationality the day You were born?
You went through a discriminatory process of normalization.

I don't live in Spain idiot! See, another fail!

You are suggesting that my adopted country, by definition, applies different laws to me, and I am telling you that the SAME laws apply to me as it does to natives...

As I said, I do NOT live in Israel where, yes, what you are saying would be right!

And that is the WHOLE point of this thread!!!
:huh1:
So only in Israel a foreign national goes through normalization to get citizenship?
...the ridiculousness of the claims against Israel.

Oh dear... Here we go AGAIN...

Just so we can make sure we/YOU aren't moving the goalposts again...

You said that my adopted country applies different laws to me by definition.

I told you that the laws applied to me are exactly the same as those of the 'native' peoples of my adopted country.

Which part of that do you not understand?

What ever you are banging on about "normalization" really has nothing to the laws that apply to me or natives!

I sense a serious degree of squirming and utter bullshit coming from you!
 
If it's Your adopted country, then by definition different laws apply to You.

Oh? How so?

I can't wait for your response!!

Just for clarity, no, I don't live in Israel.

Did You get Spaniard nationality the day You were born?
You went through a discriminatory process of normalization.

I don't live in Spain idiot! See, another fail!

You are suggesting that my adopted country, by definition, applies different laws to me, and I am telling you that the SAME laws apply to me as it does to natives...

As I said, I do NOT live in Israel where, yes, what you are saying would be right!

And that is the WHOLE point of this thread!!!
:huh1:
So only in Israel a foreign national goes through normalization to get citizenship?
...the ridiculousness of the claims against Israel.

Oh dear... Here we go AGAIN...

Just so we can make sure we/YOU aren't moving the goalposts again...

You said that my adopted country applies different laws to me by definition.

I told you that the laws applied to me are exactly the same as those of the 'native' peoples of my adopted country.

Which part of that do you not understand?

What ever you are banging on about "normalization" really has nothing to the laws that apply to me or natives!

I sense a serious degree of squirming and utter bullshit coming from you!


Are you a national of your adopted country? Or a permanent resident?
 
In Israel that's called "gave his professional opinion and walked away".
Are You of the opinion that Jews are described as holy pink bunnies in the Bible?

I've read just about every Bible from the Ethiopian Bible, the Christian Bible including their variants, to the Jewish Bible. And many many more modern and ancient theologic works, including extra-biblical history and text. I'm competent linguistically as well as competent to compare and recall and to place into perspective with the times as well as the cirtcumstances of providing their writings. And I Iike to consider my geo-political awareness far beyond average.

Mine is an educated view.

Be thankful I stay out of these Israeli propaganda threads.

Yes we all know about that self accredited chest beating.
Let's pretend others haven't pretended for millennias to successfully "dispute" Jews about what's written in the Torah, in Hebrew.:rolleyes:
 
Did I say foreign language?
I said in the "native", and in the native languages 'Palestinian' means - foreign invader.

That's the meaning like it or not.

Well, that's what one would call an own goal you idiot!

The first appearance of the term "Palestine" was from the Greeks NOT Hebrews!

So, those foreign invading Hebrews ... Care to finish the rest?

:290968001256257790-final:
You can try and find me another meaning in the native languages of Canaan...oh but wait You'll have to go to Hebrew.:04:

Here, let me try and help you before you end up looking like a complete ******* moron...

The first appearance of the term "Palestine" was from the Greeks NOT Hebrews!

Maybe it's bad light, maybe its your failing eyesight, maybe it is your 'Israel First' blinkers that stopped you reading that so I thought I would make the text bold for you!

And does that prove Greek to be the native language of Canaan or that 'Palestinian' does not mean invaders?

You keep dancing about simple facts, but there's no substance.

The simple facts are you are a proven liar...

Would you like to make the same lie, sorry, statement, that "Palestine" is a Hebrew word in face of the fact that it ISN'T?

So what root in Greek does the word "Palestine" come from?
Give me those facts just try not to piss Your pants out of anger.
 
If it's Your adopted country, then by definition different laws apply to You.

Oh? How so?

I can't wait for your response!!

Just for clarity, no, I don't live in Israel.

Did You get Spaniard nationality the day You were born?
You went through a discriminatory process of normalization.

I don't live in Spain idiot! See, another fail!

You are suggesting that my adopted country, by definition, applies different laws to me, and I am telling you that the SAME laws apply to me as it does to natives...

As I said, I do NOT live in Israel where, yes, what you are saying would be right!

And that is the WHOLE point of this thread!!!
:huh1:
So only in Israel a foreign national goes through normalization to get citizenship?
...the ridiculousness of the claims against Israel.

Oh dear... Here we go AGAIN...

Just so we can make sure we/YOU aren't moving the goalposts again...

You said that my adopted country applies different laws to me by definition.

I told you that the laws applied to me are exactly the same as those of the 'native' peoples of my adopted country.

Which part of that do you not understand?

What ever you are banging on about "normalization" really has nothing to the laws that apply to me or natives!

I sense a serious degree of squirming and utter bullshit coming from you!

In Spain, does normalization apply to natives?

It's a simple question, don't mumble.
 
That is exactly the point:'

There are NO OTHER INDIGENOUS PEOPLE with rights to the land and self determination but the Jewish People.

There never has been.

No other people has ever declared indigenous rights to the land of Israel before 1948.

Self Determination is different from "National Rights" to think of myself as an American.

I am not descendant from the First Nations of America. Not one of them.
I do not have the right to demand the same rights to self determination over their ancestral lands as they do. I never will.

Therefore, if the Apaches choose to declare self-determination over their ancient homeland, no other First Nation can do the same, and neither can any European or Asian who came over after 1492.

Therefore, here we have the Arabs, who came into the land 2400 years after the Jewish People established their Nation, culture, etc, saying that They have exactly the same rights, or worse, they have more rights to self-determination over the land then the Jewish People.

And that is exactly what you and others cannot come to understand.

I completely understand and completely disagree. There are mutliple indiginous groups, not just one. But you believe only one has rights to that region. And that is the problem - each side only believes in the legitimacy of their side's position.


Are people of European ancestry indigenous to the US, in your opinion?

If they also have Native American ancestry yes.


I disagree. He ancestry is not the important element.

The elements to be measured (and this is in the UN Declaratiin of Indigenous Rights) are:

1. Self identification with the peoples.
2. Acceptance by the collective as part of the peoples.
3. Participation in the culture.


It's not about a blood test. It's about being part of the people.

You can have indiginous cultures. And you can have indiginous people. Palestinians, regardless of culture are indigninous - descended from indiginous. Their rights are the same.

But you are still using "blood tests" to determine indigeneity - descent from indigenous. That is the wrong measurement.

An invading, conquering peoples who overtake convert, destroy, disappear another culture and then mix with the indigenous peoples and replace them will have the "right blood test" because they have intermingled with the indigenous peoples. But it's just another form of overwriting the invading culture onto the local, native culture.

That said -- their rights ARE the same. Each individual national of each nation MUST have the same rights as all other nationals of that state. And they do.

And each collective people has a right to self-determination and sovereignty and cultural expression in their own territory.

There IS NO inequality here. The rights of individual nationals are protected and the rights of the collective nationality is protected.
 
70 years after the establishment of a Jewish state was declared, now it became a basic (constitutional) law.

The full text of the law:

Basic Law: Israel as the Nation State of the Jewish People

1 — Basic principles

A. The land of Israel is the historical homeland of the Jewish people, in which the State of Israel was established.

B. The State of Israel is the national home of the Jewish people, in which it fulfills its natural, cultural, religious and historical right to self-determination.

C. The right to exercise national self-determination in the State of Israel is unique to the Jewish people.

2 — The symbols of the state

A. The name of the state is “Israel.”

B. The state flag is white with two blue stripes near the edges and a blue Star of David in the center.

C. The state emblem is a seven-branched menorah with olive leaves on both sides and the word “Israel” beneath it.

D. The state anthem is “Hatikvah.”

E. Details regarding state symbols will be determined by the law.

3 — The capital of the state

Jerusalem, complete and united, is the capital of Israel.

4 — Language

A. The state’s language is Hebrew.

B. The Arabic language has a special status in the state; Regulating the use of Arabic in state institutions or by them will be set in law.

C. This clause does not harm the status given to the Arabic language before this law came into effect.

5 — Ingathering of the exiles

The state will be open for Jewish immigration and the ingathering of exiles

6 — Connection to the Jewish people

A. The state will strive to ensure the safety of the members of the Jewish people in trouble or in captivity due to the fact of their Jewishness or their citizenship.

B. The state shall act within the Diaspora to strengthen the affinity between the state and members of the Jewish people.

C. The state shall act to preserve the cultural, historical and religious heritage of the Jewish people among Jews in the Diaspora.

7 — Jewish settlement

A. The state views the development of Jewish settlement as a national value and will act to encourage and promote its establishment and consolidation.

8 — Official calendar

The Hebrew calendar is the official calendar of the state and alongside it the Gregorian calendar will be used as an official calendar. Use of the Hebrew calendar and the Gregorian calendar will be determined by law.

9 — Independence Day and memorial days

A. Independence Day is the official national holiday of the state.

B. Memorial Day for the Fallen in Israel’s Wars and Holocaust and Heroism Remembrance Day are official memorial days of the State.

10 — Days of rest and sabbath

The Sabbath and the festivals of Israel are the established days of rest in the state; Non-Jews have a right to maintain days of rest on their Sabbaths and festivals; Details of this issue will be determined by law.

11 — Immutability

This Basic Law shall not be amended, unless by another Basic Law passed by a majority of Knesset members.

I am going to refer back to the OP...because I want to point out something which I think does make this basic law different than those constitutions of other countries with multi ethnic populations.

In Part 1, A and B I totally agree with, nothing wrong there, other nations do that. C is problematic to me because It states that this national Right is unique to Jewish people in Israel. Why is this needed given that A and B already enshrine the importance of Jewish people and culture to the state?

It is this particular clause that makes it markedly different then say Slovenia, which you used as an example:

...the fundamental and permanent right of the Slovene nation to self-determination; and from the historical fact that in a centuries-long struggle for national liberation we Slovenes have established our national identity and asserted our statehood.

It does not claim that this national right is unique to only Slovenes. It refers not to a people but a nation albeit Slovene. I think distinctions matter, one is inclusive (theoretically) the other is exclusive and very specifically in who among its people’s has national rights and self determination. I think if this part had been left out, critics would not had much to stand on.


I think you are trying to make a distinction where there is none.

So you think that the Slovene declaration means that the Russian minority in Slovenia should have national rights in Slovenia?

You would have no problem with the declaration wording being: ... the fundamental and permanent right of the Jewish nation to self-determination and from the historical fact of a millennia long struggle for national liberation, we Jews have established our national identity and asserted our Statehood.

The right to exercise national self-determination in the State of Israel is unique to the Jewish people.

I think it is an important distiction to those who are excluded - the Israeli law explicitely states who is included in that national right. The Slovenian law doesn't.

The second statement has the potential to include more than just Jews under the "Jewish nation".


The second statement says explicitly, "we Slovenes" and you somehow take that to mean we Slovenes and those Russians who live here too. Yet when The Jewish people say, "we Jews" you take it to mean not only JUST the JEWS but also extend it to mean that even the rights of individuals are affected.

Why doesn't "we Jews" mean the same to you as "we Slovenes"? I think your answer is going to be that the Jews write it explicitly. Why do you think the Jewish people felt it necessary to write it explicitly?
 
15th post
70 years after the establishment of a Jewish state was declared, now it became a basic (constitutional) law.

The full text of the law:

Basic Law: Israel as the Nation State of the Jewish People

1 — Basic principles

A. The land of Israel is the historical homeland of the Jewish people, in which the State of Israel was established.

B. The State of Israel is the national home of the Jewish people, in which it fulfills its natural, cultural, religious and historical right to self-determination.

C. The right to exercise national self-determination in the State of Israel is unique to the Jewish people.

2 — The symbols of the state

A. The name of the state is “Israel.”

B. The state flag is white with two blue stripes near the edges and a blue Star of David in the center.

C. The state emblem is a seven-branched menorah with olive leaves on both sides and the word “Israel” beneath it.

D. The state anthem is “Hatikvah.”

E. Details regarding state symbols will be determined by the law.

3 — The capital of the state

Jerusalem, complete and united, is the capital of Israel.

4 — Language

A. The state’s language is Hebrew.

B. The Arabic language has a special status in the state; Regulating the use of Arabic in state institutions or by them will be set in law.

C. This clause does not harm the status given to the Arabic language before this law came into effect.

5 — Ingathering of the exiles

The state will be open for Jewish immigration and the ingathering of exiles

6 — Connection to the Jewish people

A. The state will strive to ensure the safety of the members of the Jewish people in trouble or in captivity due to the fact of their Jewishness or their citizenship.

B. The state shall act within the Diaspora to strengthen the affinity between the state and members of the Jewish people.

C. The state shall act to preserve the cultural, historical and religious heritage of the Jewish people among Jews in the Diaspora.

7 — Jewish settlement

A. The state views the development of Jewish settlement as a national value and will act to encourage and promote its establishment and consolidation.

8 — Official calendar

The Hebrew calendar is the official calendar of the state and alongside it the Gregorian calendar will be used as an official calendar. Use of the Hebrew calendar and the Gregorian calendar will be determined by law.

9 — Independence Day and memorial days

A. Independence Day is the official national holiday of the state.

B. Memorial Day for the Fallen in Israel’s Wars and Holocaust and Heroism Remembrance Day are official memorial days of the State.

10 — Days of rest and sabbath

The Sabbath and the festivals of Israel are the established days of rest in the state; Non-Jews have a right to maintain days of rest on their Sabbaths and festivals; Details of this issue will be determined by law.

11 — Immutability

This Basic Law shall not be amended, unless by another Basic Law passed by a majority of Knesset members.

I am going to refer back to the OP...because I want to point out something which I think does make this basic law different than those constitutions of other countries with multi ethnic populations.

In Part 1, A and B I totally agree with, nothing wrong there, other nations do that. C is problematic to me because It states that this national Right is unique to Jewish people in Israel. Why is this needed given that A and B already enshrine the importance of Jewish people and culture to the state?

It is this particular clause that makes it markedly different then say Slovenia, which you used as an example:

...the fundamental and permanent right of the Slovene nation to self-determination; and from the historical fact that in a centuries-long struggle for national liberation we Slovenes have established our national identity and asserted our statehood.

It does not claim that this national right is unique to only Slovenes. It refers not to a people but a nation albeit Slovene. I think distinctions matter, one is inclusive (theoretically) the other is exclusive and very specifically in who among its people’s has national rights and self determination. I think if this part had been left out, critics would not had much to stand on.


I think you are trying to make a distinction where there is none.

So you think that the Slovene declaration means that the Russian minority in Slovenia should have national rights in Slovenia?

You would have no problem with the declaration wording being: ... the fundamental and permanent right of the Jewish nation to self-determination and from the historical fact of a millennia long struggle for national liberation, we Jews have established our national identity and asserted our Statehood.


The right to exercise national self-determination in the State of Israel is unique to the Jewish people.

I think it is an important distiction to those who are excluded - the Israeli law explicitely states who is included in that national right. The Slovenian law doesn't.

The second statement has the potential to include more than just Jews under the "Jewish nation".

I think it's important to clarify what we are arguing here.

No one is arguing against the individual rights of anybody.

And no one is arguing against the collective rights of each national peoples. (Well, no one on the Israeli side anyway).

What we are arguing is that the Jewish people have collective national rights (self-determination, sovereignty, cultural expression) in Israel. Arab Palestinians have collective national rights in "Palestine" (and also in Jordan and also in Syria).

So there is no removal or denial of rights going in here (Well, on the Israeli side anyway).

It may help to think of national rights as being LIMITED by territory. People can only have national rights in the local territory where they had their cultural genesis. Everyone has collective, cultural, national rights. But those rights can only be exercised in limited territory. Thus the Scots people can not have a Scotland in Europe and another one in Africa and another one in Asia and another one off the coast of Australia. (This IS the essence of indigenous rights over colonization).
 
It absolutely makes a difference. Judaism IS a religion. Slovene is not. Kurd is not. If you are creating a Slovene state, religion may or may not play role in it. The ethnic group is not defined by its religion.

Judaism IS a religion. But the Jewish peoples ethnic and cultural collective is MORE than just their religion. Just as MOST cultural groups have a religion but are MORE than their religion. If you are creating a Slovene state you are taking the collective culture of being Slovene, which may, or may not include religious aspects. You said it yourself -- the ethnic group is not defined by its religion. The Jewish people are also NOT defined by their religion. Their religion is a part of their culture, even a large part, but they are not defined by their religion. They also have history, and language and all the other parts which make up a culture.

To disable the Jewish people from their culture because of the aspect of religion is to create separate rules for them.

(Btw, as a side note, I disagree that Judaism is a strictly a religion. One can not simply adopt certain doctrines and become Jewish. It doesn't work like that. If you want to differentiate between the strict religion of the Jewish people as opposed to the fullness of their culture, I'd suggest you speak of B'Nei Noach as the religion and Judaism or Jewishness as the cultural collective).
So you say,but it is only a ruse to hide,that you are converts only...the Zionist attempt to legitimise Non Semitic Jews will of course Fail,as for your New Laws,some crap about a Jews only State...what Jews...you mean Ziocrap methinks

Anyhow it is Ilegal because in 1948,it clearly states "For Jews and others"...see you around
 
Oh? How so?

I can't wait for your response!!

Just for clarity, no, I don't live in Israel.

Did You get Spaniard nationality the day You were born?
You went through a discriminatory process of normalization.

I don't live in Spain idiot! See, another fail!

You are suggesting that my adopted country, by definition, applies different laws to me, and I am telling you that the SAME laws apply to me as it does to natives...

As I said, I do NOT live in Israel where, yes, what you are saying would be right!

And that is the WHOLE point of this thread!!!
:huh1:
So only in Israel a foreign national goes through normalization to get citizenship?
...the ridiculousness of the claims against Israel.

Oh dear... Here we go AGAIN...

Just so we can make sure we/YOU aren't moving the goalposts again...

You said that my adopted country applies different laws to me by definition.

I told you that the laws applied to me are exactly the same as those of the 'native' peoples of my adopted country.

Which part of that do you not understand?

What ever you are banging on about "normalization" really has nothing to the laws that apply to me or natives!

I sense a serious degree of squirming and utter bullshit coming from you!


Are you a national of your adopted country? Or a permanent resident?

Define your meaning for both before I respond please.
 
Did You get Spaniard nationality the day You were born?
You went through a discriminatory process of normalization.

I don't live in Spain idiot! See, another fail!

You are suggesting that my adopted country, by definition, applies different laws to me, and I am telling you that the SAME laws apply to me as it does to natives...

As I said, I do NOT live in Israel where, yes, what you are saying would be right!

And that is the WHOLE point of this thread!!!
:huh1:
So only in Israel a foreign national goes through normalization to get citizenship?
...the ridiculousness of the claims against Israel.

Oh dear... Here we go AGAIN...

Just so we can make sure we/YOU aren't moving the goalposts again...

You said that my adopted country applies different laws to me by definition.

I told you that the laws applied to me are exactly the same as those of the 'native' peoples of my adopted country.

Which part of that do you not understand?

What ever you are banging on about "normalization" really has nothing to the laws that apply to me or natives!

I sense a serious degree of squirming and utter bullshit coming from you!


Are you a national of your adopted country? Or a permanent resident?

Define your meaning for both before I respond please.

Typical definition is a two fold relationship where you have obligations to your country of nationality AND you can avail yourself of the protection of your country of nationality.

Permanent residency implies a nationality (with above obligations and protections) outside the state in which you happen to be living. You have already said you have dual citizenship so my assumption is that you have two nationalities and are living in one of them. Alternatively you could have two nationalities and be living in a third country.
 

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