Yes, it did . . .
Supreme Court, 1876: "The right . . . of 'bearing arms for a lawful purpose' [that of self-defense in public from the KKK by ex-slaves in Louisiana] . . . is not a right granted by the Constitution. Neither is it in any manner dependent upon that instrument for its existence. The second amendment declares that it shall not be infringed, . . ."
Supreme Court, 1886: "the right of the people to keep and bear arms is not a right granted by the Constitution. Neither is it in any manner dependent upon that instrument for its existence. The second amendment declares that it shall not be infringed, . . . "
Supreme Court, 2008: "it has always been widely understood that the Second Amendment, like the First and Fourth Amendments, codified a pre-existing right. The very text of the Second Amendment implicitly recognizes the pre-existence of the right and declares only that it “shall not be infringed.” As we said in . . . 1876 , “[t]his is not a right granted by the Constitution. Neither is it in any manner dependent upon that instrument for its existence. The second amendment declares that it shall not be infringed, . . .”
The Court again in
NYSRPA re-re-re-affirms the right to arms is an original, fundamental, fully retained, pre-existing right possessed by the individual citizen, neither conditioned or qualified by a citizen's association in a state or federal structure such as the organized militia.
They have repeatedly ruled for 146 years that the right to arms is not granted by the Constitution, thus the right in no manner depends on the Constitution for its existence . . . We
finally have a decision in
NYSRPA that is a good step forward in enforcing the protection of the 2nd Amendment as extended to the states by the 14th Amendment.
There is still much to advance, there are literally thousands of unconstitutional laws to invalidate / strike-down . . . In reality, the RKBA / 2ndA is 80 years behind the enforcement of other rights recognized and secured in the Bill of Rights.
I'm not ignoring, I'm just quoting the Supreme Court explaining that the declaratory clause is a statement of principle not active, positive law, thus it cannot impart conditioning and qualifying action on the right.
The declaratory clause reaffirms what once was a universally understood and accepted maxim; that the armed citizenry dispenses with the need for a standing army (in times of peace) and those armed citizens stand as a barrier to foreign invasion and domestic tyranny (thus ensuring the free state).
The 2nd Amendment does not speak to militia in any
legal manner, shape or form. The 2nd Amendment has never been examined to inform on any aspect of militia organization or control.
I am talking about
actual legal effect, not any mystical effect that SCOTUS has never recognized and only collectivist anti-gun political activists have advanced. The lines of militia jurisprudence and RKBA/2ndA jurisprudence in SCOTUS are entirely different and separate.
The cases where SCOTUS decided militia issues are a separate and distinct track from the Court's RKBA/2ndA cases; if your theory had any truth to it, there would be some overlap. We would read multiple instances where the Supreme Court is citing the 2nd Amendment for some instruction or direction on how to decide militia issues . . . But there is NOTHING, in fact, the Supreme Court only mentioned the 2nd Amendment once in a militia case, it was
the very first one, in 1820, in a dissent by Justice Story, only to say the 2nd Amendment offered NOTHING to inform the Court on militia issues.
Your position is a hollow theory without any support in the philosophical, historical or legal record of the nation. If you actually knew the case law, you would know your theory began in the federal (lower court) system in 1942.
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