rosends
Gold Member
- Oct 19, 2012
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first off -- nothing is being "outlawed." That's not how the law works. Second, can you show me how adopting the definition would or could "outlaw" anything? Third, can you show me where in the text of the definition there is any mention of criticism of any government?I do not see why any society would allow a group to outlaw criticisim of a foreign government or a foreign political ideology.
To remind you, the question is about any particular group's choice to adopt as an accepted definition of antisemitism, this definition:
“Antisemitism is a certain perception of Jews, which may be expressed as hatred toward Jews. Rhetorical and physical manifestations of antisemitism are directed toward Jewish or non-Jewish individuals and/or their property, toward Jewish community institutions and religious facilities.”
What law exactly are you concerned about? How could the IHRA definition of anti-semitism be used to outlaw criticisms?That situation must be avoided else a society is doomed, why would anyone approve of any law that could in principle be uised to outlaw criticism of a foreign countries political system?
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the IHRA definition would replace the definition which the US government has had since 2010
"Anti-Semitism is a certain perception of Jews, which may be expressed as hatred toward Jews. Rhetorical and physical manifestations of anti-Semitism are directed toward Jewish or non-Jewish individuals and/or their property, toward Jewish community institutions and religious facilities." --Working Definition of Anti-Semitism by the European Monitoring Center on Racism and Xenophobia
