Some people have claimed, "All judges legislate from the bench to some extent". In some cases, the evidence supporting it seems obvious, such as when O'Conner invented a timetable out of thinn air by which the University of Michigan should eventually end its racial discrimination. Or when a 5-4 majority of the Supreme Court ruled that the risk of hurting people's feelings was more important than 1st amendment restrictions on speech, and so ruled that the Campaign Finance "Reform" act was constitutional.
But what might a so-called "conservative" judge do, that is similar?
Suppose a judge thought it was wrong to tax incomes. He thinks taxes should only be on duties, excises, etc. He gets a case where someone says he shouldn't have to pay such-and-such a part of his income taxes, and the IRS says he should pay. Despite the clear language of the 16th amendment saying income taxes are OK, this judge says that income taxes are an "unnecessary burden", and so rules that the man does not have to pay. This forms a precedent, and suddenly income taxes are being disallowed right and left as a result.
That would be one (hypothetical) example of a so-called "conservative" judge legislating from the bench. But has anyone ever seen any judge ruling MORE in favor of "conservative" law than the law itself specifies? Or ruling against any law that people felt was too liberal even though it was properly legislated and signed into law?
So-called "liberal" judges err or the side of liberalism frequently. But do so-called "conservative" judges really do it too?
Please, name ONE example.