Let's try and be clear. Prior to Obergefell, the USSC had already established marriage as a fundamental right.
They had not established that "marriage" could be redefined to include sexual propensity. They certainly didn't establish racially-pure marriage was a fundamental right. You are all on record here as acknowledging we can restrict fundamental rights but it only seems to apply whenever YOU think it should. Meanwhile, we can deny others their constitutional rights on the basis that... hey,
the law says so!
Obergefell established that marriage could be redefined to include sexual propensity, did it? It seems to me that it established that denying same sex couples access to marriage law did not serve a compelling state interest.
Same sex couples didn't have access the same reason siblings don't have access, it's not what marriage is. Before they decided compelling state interest, they decided marriage could include a sexual proclivity it didn't include before.
You seem to think restricting rights should only apply where YOU think it should, or not at all.
No rights were being restricted. The definition of something had to be changed so that a right could be claimed that was supposedly being denied. It would be like, if I wanted to run around nude in public, claiming it was my right to free expression. Well, we have a constitutional right to free expression but it has never included public indecency... so the court alters the definition of "free expression" to include indecent behavior and voila... my rights
ARE being restricted!
You have been given reasons to deny various forms of marriage legitimacy over and over. That you choose to dismiss the reasons given to try and make the argument against your silliness seem without merit is your own issue.
And when it comes to having a valid basis for arguments, maybe when you're willing to actually cite the relevant documents or rulings you argue about instead of avoiding doing so as though it's beneath you, you'll have some credibility.
No, I've not been given ANY valid reason. You keep presenting the very same reasons that SCOTUS just shot down in Obergefell. Somehow, those reasons magically become valid again, they just didn't apply to homosexuals.
And here you are again, demanding I show you where the law says it can be challenged and changed! But I don't recall anything in the law before Obergefell that said
"marriage is the union of a man and woman but this can all be challenged by homosexuals and changed to include their sexual behavior!" In fact, most of the time, the law does not specifically authorize the SCOTUS to redefine things. So what the **** do you mean? I can't show you where the law says one day the SCOTUS can overturn it by reinventing what things are!