I thought it might be. I pointed out to you that there was not a single piece of objective evidence in either of those posts. But do prove me wrong. Show it to me. You say it is there, you have referred to it twice now, show me what you are talking about. Specifically.
From Websters - Objective: of, relating to, or being an object,
phenomenon, or condition in the realm of sensible experience independent of individual thought and perceptible by all observers.
I don't want to be mean either, but if you actually want to hold a discussion then do it. Stop deferring to another poster. Make your own points and back them up.
I only referred you to his post to save time, and then you guys started talking about it based on his post so I butted out. That's all that happened there. I didn't mean to blow you off. When you raised it again, I got frustrated with you for the same reason I think M.D.R. did. Now I see the problem. He's using the term "objective" in its boarder philosophical sense. You're using it in its common or scientific sense to denote something that is physical or perceived by the senses. I just assumed you guys worked that out after he explained to you that he was using it that way. I understood that he was using it in the philosophical all along.
Objectivity is a central philosophical concept, related to reality and truth, which has been variously defined by sources. Generally, objectivity means
the state or quality of being true even outside of a subject's individual biases, interpretations, feelings, and imaginings. A proposition is generally considered
objectively true (to have objective truth) when its
truth conditions are met and are
"bias-free"; that is, existing without biases caused by, feelings, ideas, etc. of a sentient subject.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Objectivity_(philosophy
The boarder sense is also defined in general, nontechnical terms in your basic dictionaries too:
Objective:
. . . not influenced by personal feelings, interpretations, or prejudice; based on facts; unbiased: an objective opinion.
. . . being the object of perception or thought; belonging to the object of thought rather than to the thinking subject (opposed to subjective).
Objective Define Objective at Dictionary.com
Rational perceptions that are universally absolute are objectively true by necessity. They're true by definition or by logical condition. They're self-evident or axiomatic because they cannot be falsified. The problem of origin is philosophical. In philosophical issues both empirical data and absolute rational data are objective evidence. But even your lack of philosophical sophistication doesn't explain why you nonsensically argue that the cosmos isn't evidence for God's existence.
Yes, I do lack philosophical sophistication. So all I can say, in my own unsophisticated way, is what you just wrote is a pile of fetid dingo's kidneys. It is nonsense, bullshit and utter garbage. I have absolutely no problem with people who believe whatever they like, but to try to pretend that belief is somehow knowledge with tripe like this is a complete waste of time.
I thought it might be. I pointed out to you that there was not a single piece of objective evidence in either of those posts. But do prove me wrong. Show it to me. You say it is there, you have referred to it twice now, show me what you are talking about. Specifically.
From Websters - Objective: of, relating to, or being an object,
phenomenon, or condition in the realm of sensible experience independent of individual thought and perceptible by all observers.
I don't want to be mean either, but if you actually want to hold a discussion then do it. Stop deferring to another poster. Make your own points and back them up.
I only referred you to his post to save time, and then you guys started talking about it based on his post so I butted out. That's all that happened there. I didn't mean to blow you off. When you raised it again, I got frustrated with you for the same reason I think M.D.R. did. Now I see the problem. He's using the term "objective" in its boarder philosophical sense. You're using it in its common or scientific sense to denote something that is physical or perceived by the senses. I just assumed you guys worked that out after he explained to you that he was using it that way. I understood that he was using it in the philosophical all along.
Objectivity is a central philosophical concept, related to reality and truth, which has been variously defined by sources. Generally, objectivity means
the state or quality of being true even outside of a subject's individual biases, interpretations, feelings, and imaginings. A proposition is generally considered
objectively true (to have objective truth) when its
truth conditions are met and are
"bias-free"; that is, existing without biases caused by, feelings, ideas, etc. of a sentient subject.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Objectivity_(philosophy
The boarder sense is also defined in general, nontechnical terms in your basic dictionaries too:
Objective:
. . . not influenced by personal feelings, interpretations, or prejudice; based on facts; unbiased: an objective opinion.
. . . being the object of perception or thought; belonging to the object of thought rather than to the thinking subject (opposed to subjective).
Objective Define Objective at Dictionary.com
Rational perceptions that are universally absolute are objectively true by necessity. They're true by definition or by logical condition. They're self-evident or axiomatic because they cannot be falsified. The problem of origin is philosophical. In philosophical issues both empirical data and absolute rational data are objective evidence. But even your lack of philosophical sophistication doesn't explain why you nonsensically argue that the cosmos isn't evidence for God's existence.
Subjectivity, of course, is antonymic to objectivity, and the key to understanding, not only what the difference between the two is, but understanding what the ultimate essence of each is, is to understand the Subject-Object dichotomy.
But you're wasting your time with PratchettFan. From the jump, I knew exactly what this fool was thinking: objective evidence = physical substance only, and the existence of the cosmos, especially the existence of its rational constituents and the implications of their pertinent apprehensions, isn't evidence of God's existence, because God isn't physical, which, of course, does not logically follow.
He's even deceived himself into believing that
the essence of objectivity is a definition one might find in a dictionary proffering only the most rudimentary understanding of the adjectival form of the concept
object. His problem isn't a lack of philosophical sophistication. His problem is a lack of commonsense. He's a stone-cold idiot. But mostly, his mind is as closed as a slammed-shut door. In the meantime, he damn well does recognize the universally apparent constituents of the problem of origin, and the absolute, universally apparent laws of logic. He also knows damn well or did know, before God gave his mind over to reprobation, that the cosmos is objective evidence of God's existence. But of course
the absolute objects of axiomatic truths apprehended by
the rational subjects of existence are by their very nature objective evidence of God's existence too.
By the way, a serious contemplation of the Subject-Object dichotomy reveals profound insights into why God must be, and if you be still and listen, if you pay real close attention, embrace the almost visceral, epiphanic implications, you might even hear the recording of God's voice imprinted on your mind. Boo!