Gunny
Gold Member
... and not behavioral, then how come it is since homosexuals cannot reproduce that the defective gene has not been bred out of humans through natural section?
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... and not behavioral, then how come it is since homosexuals cannot reproduce that the defective gene has not been bred out of humans through natural section?
There have been a few scientific studies that explain the supposed paradox between 'homosexuality genes' and Darwin's theories. See here for an article about one study and here for the Proceedings of the Royal Society article on that study.... and not behavioral, then how come it is since homosexuals cannot reproduce that the defective gene has not been bred out of humans through natural section?
There have been a few scientific studies that explain the supposed paradox between 'homosexuality genes' and Darwin's theories. See here for an article about one study and here for the Proceedings of the Royal Society article on that study.
Of course, if you read either article it specifically states that the genetic effect only accounts for a small percentage of homosexuality and more study is needed in order to better determine the role that genetics plays in determining if a person will become homosexual or not.
I hope that answers your immediate question.
Even if it's not genetic, it might be a psychological result of certain circumstances that form the individual. And they may not be able to control their feelings. Every gay I know says it was always present in them. The idea that gays choose that lifestyle to be wacky or rebellious doesn't make a lot of sense to me based on my personal observations.
Some obviously don't choose it as a lifestyle. But some do. They choose being gay just like they choose to be vegetarians, animal rights activists, or any other "cause" they find appealling.
I will say, more obvious for males than females, it's pretty easy to spot the genetic predestined in k-1, than heteros. Some that seem hetero, may take one by surprise, rarely those that seem homosexual.
In my experience what you are saying here applies much more to lesbians than to male homosexuals.
There have been a few scientific studies that explain the supposed paradox between 'homosexuality genes' and Darwin's theories. See here for an article about one study and here for the Proceedings of the Royal Society article on that study.
Of course, if you read either article it specifically states that the genetic effect only accounts for a small percentage of homosexuality and more study is needed in order to better determine the role that genetics plays in determining if a person will become homosexual or not.
I hope that answers your immediate question.
Even if it's not genetic, it might be a psychological result of certain circumstances that form the individual. And they may not be able to control their feelings. Every gay I know says it was always present in them. The idea that gays choose that lifestyle to be wacky or rebellious doesn't make a lot of sense to me based on my personal observations.
Those articles are all fine and dandy, but you have to keep in mind homosexuality has never been proven to be genetic.
I think that's Gunny's point.
I already know the answer to the question.
So these studies not only claim homosexuality is hereditary, but because it does not die out through natural selection that it is also a "special" hereditary gene. Guess that about covers it, huh?:scratch:
Sorry, I didn't realize that your question was rhetorical in nature. Irregardless, I don't believe that is what the articles are getting at - it isn't, if I am reading the articles correctly, strictly genetic in nature. If the female parent is more fertile when producing offspring, it is more likely that said offspring will be homosexual, so it has something to do with the hormones that are produced by the mother while the child is in gestation.
According to that theory, if you controlled the conditions while the child was in gestation, you could 'control' whether or not they were 'predisposed' towards homosexuality / bi-sexuality.
'More fertile'? Hello? Where is this coming from? New one here. That's not 'genetics' btw, but endocrineology. Hello????Sorry, I didn't realize that your question was rhetorical in nature. Irregardless, I don't believe that is what the articles are getting at - it isn't, if I am reading the articles correctly, strictly genetic in nature. If the female parent is more fertile when producing offspring, it is more likely that said offspring will be homosexual, so it has something to do with the hormones that are produced by the mother while the child is in gestation.
According to that theory, if you controlled the conditions while the child was in gestation, you could 'control' whether or not they were 'predisposed' towards homosexuality / bi-sexuality.
What I DON'T see, are any of the board's usual suspects
(pro-homo faction) rushing in to defend genetic stance.
'More fertile'? Hello? Where is this coming from? New one here. That's not 'genetics' btw, but endocrineology. Hello????