2aguy
Diamond Member
- Jul 19, 2014
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If the 2nd Amendment is so good, one has to wonder why other nations haven't looked at it and said, "Damn...we need on of those!"When Congress approved the First Amendment on Dec. 15, 1791, they didn’t feel any need to describe why they were insisting on freedom of speech, publication, religion, and protest. They didn’t say “for the purposes of reporting the news,” or “because we think Americans should go to church,” or set limits on the size of marches. There are no specific purposes, and no boundaries set on any of these rights.
However, when the Second Amendment was passed on the same day, it was laden with all too familiar language that describes exactly why citizens were to be permitted firearms: “A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State.” Citizens were allowed to have guns for a specific purpose. And while it may be possible, with enough convoluted statements and nonsense about the 18th century context of “well-regulated” or the definition of “militia,” to deliberately misunderstand the clear meaning of the this limit, the authors underlined the meaning in the Third Amendment.
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Protection of the elected government from both a standing army, and an insurrectionist mob.
No...we know why....the Germans didn't want a 2nd Amendment because you can't murder 12 million men, women and children if the 12 million have easy access to guns........
That was 80 years ago. Why hasn't the Germans (or the other 200 nations) decided to get their own 2nd Amendment if it such a good idea?
And you don't think it can happen again? The rest of Europe is just as dumb, and they handed over their citizens to the Germans for murder........
Russia, 25 million murdered.
China, 75 million murdered.
Japan, 3 million murdered.
How many millions have to be murdered throughout history before they get a clue that only allowing the government to have guns is a stupid idea?