Did he happen to notice, right after that, “…the right of the people…”, or the statement that that right “…shall not be infringed.”?
Or does he (and you) interpret the phrase “the people” in the Marxist sense, to refer to government or some collective right rather than to individuals. That would be a bit of a trick, of course, given that Karl Marx was not born until well after the Second Amendment was written and ratified, and did not invent this misuse of the term “the people” until well after that.
Except the concept of a individual right didn't exist in a time when 70% of the population were not considered "citizens", and black people were considered only 3/5 of a white person. Trust me, Thomas Jefferson was not envisioning giving Sally Hemings a gun to protect herself from rape, which seems to be the argument of you gun nuts.
Of course, I don't consider the word of guys who shit in chamberpots and wore powdered wigs to be the last word on anything. My point was, for MOST of our history, the courts have held that the second WAS a collective right, not an individual one, and that guns ownership could be restricted.
Now, a Militia amendment MIGHT have made sense in 1787, when you didn't have police forces or a standing army and you still had wild animals and Native Americans who objected to being genocided.
So rather than worrying about what slave rapists thought about gun ownership, we should base our laws on what makes sense in the HERE AND NOW.
Does it make sense that Lanza, Cho, Mercer, Loughner, Holmes or Forook can easily buy weapons of war and unleash them in our schools, recreation and work places?
What greater good are we tolerating?