You have not explained how this prevent criminals from getting guns
You have not explained how a tax designed to limit the exercise of the right to arms does not violate the 2nd amendment
Nothing in the OP necessitates that I do.
But... in a free country, people get to exercise their rights until they do something that causes them to loose the ability to do so
Again as stated before.. your reading of the 2nd amendment is wrong. It says "shall not restrict" it does not say shall make no laws regarding, shall not regulate, shall not limit, shall not register, or shall not tax.
Shall not infringe.
Any restriction or precondition laid upon the exercise of the right to arms not inherent to same is an infringement.
None of the restrictions you want to lay upon that exercise of the right are inherent to same - thus, infringements.
Incorrect I already explained how it prevents some criminals from getting guns. It does so by reducing the number of guns in non-criminals hands. By reducing the number of guns in non-criminal hands we reduce future first criminals that use otherwise legal guns tocommit crime.
Criminals will still get guns, yes?
Again, we already have the tax stamp process for machine guns, assigning that process for more guns will be constitutional for the same reason it's been constitutional for machine guns and silencers.
Not as many... they would be more expensive by an order of magnitude or two... there would be less guns, less guns to get, less first crimes with guns, less criminals with guns all simple math.
Criminals would just move on to cheaper weapons, like sticks & knives.