Felons traditionally haven't been able to vote because they demonstrated a severe lack of judgment.
Actually, no. That's not the case at all. You're a ******* idiot who doesn't know what the **** you are talking about, but you want to pretend to sit on a high horse and wallow in your righteous indignation.
Disenfranchisement of felons is historically linked to the associated infamy of the common law felonies. Those were murder, rape, manslaughter, robbery, sodomy, larceny, arson, mayhem, and burglary. A felony was considered a crime so severe that it warranted the seizure of everything that a person owned. As Blackstone described it: "
FELONY, in the general acceptation of our English law, comprises every species of crime, which occasioned at common law the forfeiture of lands or goods. This most frequently happens in those crimes, for which a capital punishment either is or was liable to be inflicted: for those felonies, which are called clergyable, or to which the benefit of clergy extends, were anciently punished with death in all lay, or unlearned, offenders; though now by the statute-law that punishment is for the first offense universally remitted."
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Convicted felons were considered inherently dishonest. A convicted felon was not competent to serve on a jury. They were not competent to testify in court as a witness. Their voting rights were denied based on this same alleged inherent dishonesty.
The problem is that we have extended the label of felony for no reason other than to add punitive weight to victimless crimes. We have legislatively created felonies out of things that do not rightfully fit the classical definition. Meanwhile, half brain dead morons like yourself think you're somehow superior to other people and make up mindless bullshit to justify your ignorance and prejudice.