And so lying is your only response ?
The issue wasn't my claim it was yours, that Israel is somehow required by international law to vacate the disputed territories. You provided ZERO references to international law, no proof that Israel is a belligerent occupier and yes, your baseless assertions do appear racist.
So yeah.
Do you have a single statute within international law that supports your claims ?
You are the forum's liar par excellence. International Law references galore have been provided. But, there is no need to refer to International Law, the determinations (several) of the Israeli Supreme Court are sufficient. For example:
"... the
belligerent occupation of the area by Israel has special characteristics, the main one being the period of time of the occupation which demands fitting the laws to reality on the ground ...’.
HCJ 2164/09, Yesh Din v. Commander of IDF Forces in Judea and Samaria et al., Judgment, 26 December 2011 (hereafter Quarries case)
פסק-דין בתיק בג"ץ 2164/09
LOL OK so by George we have an actual reference. Now to go see what it actually says vs what our local revisionists might think it says ;--)
One moment please ;--)
Ahahahahahahahahahaa
the reference has nothing whatsoever to do with the revisionists claim that Israel is illegally occupying palestinian land ;--)
So typical. Once again your reference has exactly nothing to do with either supporting your wild claims.
The first problem I see is that the Arab belligerents within the disputed territories do not enjoy the protections of statehood or the Geneva conventions regarding civilians due to the condition of war.
Since the UN failed to segregate combatants from refugees and since the Israeli's found it necessary to consider all remnant foreign colonists as a threat to state security the statutes of the IV Geneva convention regarding protected persons do not apply.
See, within the referenced text
Quote
"55. The occupying State shall be regarded only as administrator and usufructuary of public buildings, real estate, forests, and agricultural estates belonging to the hostile State,
End Quote
The palestinians do not enjoy statehood, therefor they are not subject to the protections afforded to a state
See also
from the referenced text
Quote
"The occupying State shall be regarded only as administrator and usufructuary of public buildings, real estate, forests, and agricultural estates belonging to the hostile State, and situated in the occupied country.
End Quote
Since the palestinians do not represent any country they do not enjoy the protections afforded to independent countries.
Also
From the referenced article
Quote
"The needs of any area, be it subject to military rule or another rule, tend to change, naturally, with the passage of time and the accompanying economic developments. As was specified above, the drafters of the articles did not deem it sufficient to define the duty as merely restoring the situation to its previous condition. The duration of existing military rule might affect the nature of such needs, and so the necessity of implementing adjustments and reorganization might increase the longer such a period lasts ... the time element is a factor that affects the space of powers, whether one considers the needs of the military or the needs of the Area, or when striking the balance between those two" (HCJ 69/81 Basil Abu-Ita vs. The Commander of the Judea and Samaria Area, 37(2) PD 197, 313 (1983)).
"Therefore, the powers of a military administration extend to the implementation of any necessary measures in order to ensure growth, change and development. Thus, a military administration may develop industry, commerce, agriculture, education, health, welfare and other elements regarding good governance, which are required in order to secure the changing needs of a population in an area held in belligerent occupation" (the Askaan case, p. 804).
End Quote
It would seem that an acknowledgment of martial law is accepted by the court.
So, what the hell was your point again ?
Looks to me like the court rules against the palestinians
Doesn't much matter as it all seems like just another distraction. Do you have any statutes within international law that support your claim that Israel is illegally occupying the disputed territories. Cause this case you mention is nothing more than a dispute over mining rights. ;--)