P F Tinmore, et al,
Again, this is nonsense.
(COMMENT)RoccoR said:• This argument is merely subterfuge that attempts to suggest that the territory under the mandate was already a states under Arab sovereignty; which it was not.
You are going back to Israeli propaganda talking points. Palestinians have the right to sovereignty as UN resolutions have affirmed. The exercise of their right has been violated by occupation. That does not negate their rights.
Yes, the ArabPalestinians have the right to self-determination. No one has argued against that. But the Arab Palestinian right does not preempt the same right to self-determination that any other peoples have; including that of the Jewish People. The Arab Palestinians do not have a superior claim to that of the Jewish Citizens of the territory formerly under the Mandate for Palestine.
The Arab Palestinians rights cannot interfere with the Jewish rights.
If this case, the territorial dispute depends on significant facts that occurred, or a treaty concluded, nearly a century ago. The doctrine of inter-temporal law ["lex retro non agit" (law does not work backward)] has become well-established: “in such cases the situation in question must be appraised, and the treaty interpreted, in the light of the rules of international law as they existed at that time, and not as they exist today.”
The ArabPalestinians cannot exert the right of self-determination from the outside inward. That is to say, the people called Arab-Palestinians, who are physically resident outside the exclusive jurisdiction of Israel, cannot claim the right of self-determination to Israel.
Most Respectfully,
RYes, the ArabPalestinians have the right to self-determination. No one has argued against that.
Bullcrap, you always do. You always claim that colonial settlers have superior rights than the native population. Whenever I ask you to prove your point, you dance around the Issue.
No that is your claim in regards to the arab muslims. As we keep telling you the Jews had exactly the same rights as the arab muslims, just that they exercised them within the laws. It is your false claim every time you are shown that the arab muslims have done themselves no favours to say we give the Jews more rights. Well now I am calling you out on your claim, produce the evidence or admit that you are wrong. Prove we give the arab muslims less rights under the international laws of the time, and so give the Jews more rights.