Are judges following the constitution when they are having to force the majority of the electorate to agree to something in which they don't want to agree with on some of the issues state by state by state ? Is that what the constitution suggest to this nation now, otherwise that if people bring issues, and they can somehow link them to other issues, then the judges must follow this linking no matter what ? I'm just asking, because I believe all of this is new these days am I right ?
No, there is nothing new about the doctrine of judicial review and the courts’ authority to invalidate laws repugnant to the Constitution; this doctrine predates the founding of the Republic, it was practiced in Colonial America and is part of the Anglo-American judicial tradition dating back centuries before then.
When the people err and enact an un-Constitutional measure, it is both the duty and responsibility of the Federal courts to invalidate that measure in accordance with the Constitution and its case law. See
McCulloch v. Maryland (1819).
One’s civil liberties are not subject to majority rule, and one does not forfeit his civil liberties merely as a consequence of his state of residence. Gay Americans are first and foremost citizens of the United States, where their jurisdiction of residence is irrelevant – neither the states nor the people who reside in those states have the authority to deny an American citizen his civil liberties, civil liberties that are protected by the Federal Constitution, the supreme law of the land.