Quick question for all you people who think that slaves were immigrants.......
If they were truly immigrants, then why did they amend the Constitution to say that slaves only counted as 3/5ths of a person, and were not allowed to vote?
The Convention had unanimously accepted the principle that representation in the House of Representatives would be in proportion to the relative state populations. However, since slaves could not vote, white leaders in
slave states would thus have the benefit of increased representation in the House and the
Electoral College. Delegates opposed to
slavery proposed that only free inhabitants of each state be counted for apportionment purposes, while delegates supportive of slavery, on the other hand, opposed the proposal, wanting slaves to count in their actual numbers. The compromise that was finally agreed upon—of counting "all other persons" as only three-fifths of their actual numbers—reduced the representation of the slave states relative to the original proposals, but improved it over the Northern position.
[2] An inducement for slave states to accept the Compromise was its tie to taxation in the same ratio, so that the burden of taxation on the slave states was also reduced.
The Three-Fifths Compromise is found in Article 1, Section 2, Paragraph 3 of the
United States Constitution, which reads:
Representatives and direct Taxes shall be apportioned among the several States which may be included within this Union, according to their respective Numbers, which shall be determined by adding to the whole Number of free Persons, including those bound to Service for a Term of Years, and excluding Indians not taxed,
three fifths of all other Persons.
Three-Fifths Compromise - Wikipedia
If slaves were "true" immigrants, then why did they only count as 3/5 of a person?