Agreed.
Incorrect. The right to vote was indeed exercised, but NOT meaningfully, as you point out by the fact that gangs, etc, were able to vote multiple times. The fact that people still voted and people were elected does not mean that right was meaningfully exercised, it instead means that the right was not sufficiently protected by the state, and that the rights of the legit voters were diminished -- recall that the reason for voter registration is to proect the rights of the voters, and nothing else.
Gun registration does not protect the rights of those who exercise the right to arms, and so its constitutional permissibility cannot soundly follow from the example set by the permissibility of voter registration. Again, the difference in in the inherent nature of the rights; the fact that felons might sill be able to get guns in no way diminishes the exercise of the right by those who have it, whereas the fact that felons might still be bale to vote diminishes the exercise of the right who have it.
True, but a meaningless distinction. Libel and slander are not prtected by the 1st because they cause harm; yelling fire in a theater is not protected by the 1st because it places people ina condition of clear, pesent and immediate danger, and the dissemination of military secrets threatens our national security, possibly even creating an existential threat far greater than that of firearms -- and yet, the state cannot constitutionally restrain your exercise of your right to free speech until it determines that it contains any of these things and therefore violatwes the law.
Second, the wording of the 2nd Amendment allows for regulation, where the 1st does not.
Weak. -All- rights may be regulated (see above); the only question is if that regulation creates an infringement (almost all do) and if that infringment is constitutionally permissible. The question here is if prior restraint, constitutionally impermissible with regard to the 1st amendment, while constitutionally permissible with regard to voting rights, is permissible in regards to the 2nd.
This gets us back to:
If you accept the premise of prior restraint, then you need to accept that the same premise applies to all rights, or soundy explain why it applies to some and not to others.
Or, put otherwise:
What maked the 2nd so different that it does not share the same protection aginst prior restraint as the first?