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Ashkenazim and Germans

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rupol2000

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I guess you are the only one who knows what Illyrians have to do with not existing "Balkans"
Everybody knows. They lived there.

Illyrian_tribes-en.png
 
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rupol2000

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All the most beautiful and romantic in this world is opposed to the dark bloody ugly Gothic.
 

zaangalewa

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"Persia" is the name of the Achaemenid state. Before Cyrus the Great rebelled against the Median kings, this territory was subject to the Medes, and the Medes language was Avestan, which in ancient form is similar to the Vedic. Precisely the Medes were the Aryans. And the Parsis were most likely Semites. Their descendants Tats in the Caucasus are considered Jews. The Parsis themselves in Iran also refer to themselves as Semites.

The semitic langauges are a part of the Afro-Asian languages but the Iranian languages (Persia) are Indo-Germanic languages. And don't correct now "Indo-Germanic" into "Indo-European" because not all European languages are Indo-Germanic languages.

To correct all of your mistakes would need much to much time - but you should not confuse your idea to make others tired with the nonsense which you continously write makes anything right what you say.
 

zaangalewa

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All the most beautiful and romantic in this world is opposed to the dark bloody ugly Gothic.

Idiotic modern ideas about Goths have absolutelly nothing to do with real Goths.

 
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rupol2000

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The semitic langauges are a part of the Afro-Asian languages but the Iranian languages (Persia) are Indo-Germanic languages. And don't correct now "Indo-Germanic" into "Indo-European" because not all European languages are Indo-Germanic languages.

To correct all of your mistakes would need much to much time - but you should not confuse your idea to make others tired with the nonsense which you continously write makes anything right what you say.
Nobody knows what "Indo-European" is, all the ancient languages of this group are derivatives of the Aryan Prototocharian, and the modern Germanic language is a mixture with slavic. Modern Germanic is less Germanic than new English - it has no Latin grammar at all.

The Parsis did not speak Indo-Aryan, they have a different language. Middle Persian is a mixture, while Aryan there were Avestan and Mittanian.
 
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rupol2000

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Idiotic modern ideas about Goths have absolutelly nothing to do with real Goths.
I'm talking about real Gothic, where torture, blood and dismemberment of babies on the altar.
Modern Goths follow the bloodiness of the Gothic, but their pictures are not as ugly and disproportionate as the real Gothic painting.
 

zaangalewa

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Nobody knows what "Indo-European" is, all the ancient languages of this group are derivatives of the Aryan Prototocharian, and the modern Germanic language is a mixture with slavic. Modern Germanic is less Germanic than new English - it has no Latin grammar at all.

The Parsis did not speak Indo-Aryan, they have a different language. Middle Persian is a mixture, while Aryan there were Avestan and Mittanian.
no comment
 

zaangalewa

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I'm talking about real Gothic, where torture, blood and dismemberment of babies on the altar.
Modern Goths follow the bloodiness of the Gothic, but their pictures are not as ugly and disproportionate as the real Gothic painting.
no comment
 
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rupol2000

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Ancient Persian belongs to the Iranian group of Indo-Iranian languages. But the concept of "Indo-Iranian" is a trick, it does not mean that these are languages from one source, it is just a mixture of Persian and Avestan. on the same principle, these idiots classify "Indo-European". Typologically, Western European are not Aryan, and they do not descend from Aryan, they only have atavisms, such as vocabulary and irregular verbs.
 
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rupol2000

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The fact that traces of Latin grammar in European languages are diminishing from east to west, and given that Gothic went the other way around from west to east, suggests that the Germanic language did not belong to the Latin branch. To some extent, it was similar to the Semitic, for example, there are articles. But it was not Latin and was not the heir to the Indo-Aryan. It was the Germanic language that destroyed Latin grammar in Europe.
 
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rupol2000

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In general, as far as I understand, no one even knows what language Germanic originated from. The oldest Germanic that I know of is Old High German. And it is not at all ancient, it is 8-11 centuries AD
 
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rupol2000

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There is no doubt that German has a common root with Baltic and pre-Slavic Serbian, because they are all stunned, rude and abrupt. This is what influenced Russian, which is much rougher than Polish-Ukrainian.
 
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rupol2000

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If we proceed from a comparison with history, apparently the Lower German was closer to the original and closer to the Baltic, including the Prussian.
 
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zaangalewa
Why are Old Franco and Old Irish considered the same language? Are these the same peoples?
 
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rupol2000

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The forgery with the Gothic language is quite obvious. There is runic writing. Its homeland is in Siberia, and it was among the Bulgars and Hungarians. It was old scandinavian or the Celtic and not from the Germans. And on the map above, we see that the Goths are Prussians.
The old Scandinavian sagas are not Germanic too.
 
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rupol2000

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The tale about the "Gothic Bible" is even more ridiculous than about Kirril and Methodius. A certain priest Wulfilla invented the Runian script, which in Siberia is more than 4 thousand years old, and is still in use among the Hungarians.

muftatlar-runes.jpg
 

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