So will you explain to us how Israel is commiting genocide on the Palestinians when there are almost six times as many of them now squatting on Israel's land than there were in 1948?
I'd like to know that as well.
High_Gravity,
Wow, you cannot even go back to a prior post and read it and go to the links there.
Here is a link to a website that defines genocide, and a legal anaysis on this website also shows that Israel is guilty of the crime of genoocide.
Crime of Genocide Law (1950)
I read:
THE CRIME OF GENOCIDE (PREVENTION AND PUNISHMENT) LAW, 5710-1950*
"Genocide" -
inter-
pretation. 1.
(a) In this Law, "genocide" means any of the following acts committed with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group (hereinafter referred to as "group"), as such:
(1) killing members of the group;
(2) causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group;
(3) inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about its physical destruction, in whole or in part;
(4) imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group;
(5) forcibly transferring children of the group to another group.
(b) In subsection (a), "child" means a person under eighteen years of age
Notice, there is no requirement population decrease, it is the intent to destroy an ethnic group that is the focus of the crime. Palestinian population today has been largely influenced by a naturally high birth rate within this society. I have to wonder how much this is influenced by men taking multiple wives. (I actually have no data that addresses the question I just raised, but it is simply something I find myself thinking about, as I write this post).
Another point, over 5 million Palestinian refugees now live outside Israel and the OPT, many forced to flee, many even formally deported from the region by the Israeli Occupier.
Sherri