Was the US war for independence a revolution or a war of national liberation?

Discussion in 'History' started by there4eyeM, Jul 5, 2012.

  1. there4eyeM
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    there4eyeM unlicensed metaphysician

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    We associate the term with more modern conflicts, but couldn't it be said that the fight was to free a people that identified themselves as different from the colonial power ruling over them, thus national liberation?
    It certainly did not cause a revolution in the English world. They just went home. In the French revolution, everyone WAS home, so everything was different (not to mention the immediate invasions that occurred that the Americans did not have to face).
    Perhaps it is just being fine on a point, but, really, was it a revolution?
     
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  2. Ringel05
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    Ringel05 Diamond Member

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    Dictionaries are your friend........ :eusa_whistle:
     
  3. konradv
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    konradv Gold Member

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    Most Americans didn't see themselves as different. They saw themselves as English. If Britain had given them representation in Parliament, the revolution may never have happened. Wars of national liberation are usually associated with colonial powers fighting an indigenous people of different ethnicity.
     
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  4. MHunterB
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    MHunterB Gold Member

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    And all that despite the fact that only 1/3 of 'continentals' spoke English as their native language. (another third spoke German) It's quite true that the English citizens were affronted by the fact that they had no representation in Parliament, not even a liason to address their concerns.

    But, they were still forced to pay taxes on whatever the Crown ordered. (Remember the slogan "No taxation without representation!" - that's what it referred to.) AND they were restricted as to who they could sell what to - a colony was to export raw materials to England and buy finished goods from England. So skilled Continetal craftsmen - cabinetmakers, silversmiths and the like - were effectively barred from presenting their wares to the much larger and wealthier English market.

    And yes, it would have been 'cost-effective' in terms of delivery time to ship to England rather than elsewhere in the Colonies: it took the same time to get to/from England as it did to get to/from Boston, starting from Williamsburg VA.
     
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  5. there4eyeM
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    there4eyeM unlicensed metaphysician

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    My impression is that those who had been in the colonies for multiple generations, as well as more recent arrivals who had never been 'English', did not associate themselves with either the country nor the culture of England.
    There are examples of colonial governments, system of trade and even their own money. Most community functions were handled locally. They paid few taxes directly to England and that in trade tariffs mostly.
    British repression of industrial endeavors was a problem. The empire worked on cheap resources reprocessed in England by English industry and re-sold to the colonies transformed.
    If England had granted voting rights to the colonies (and remember that the 'elections' in England at the time were far from very democratic) it would have entered onto a very slippery slope vis-a-vis all the rest of the empire. They certainly had no intention of allowing extra-territorials gain political power in England.
    Plainly, a significant part of the population had no respect or regard for authority in government form. This ranged from intellectuals to simple farmers, hunters and adventurers.
    There are historical precedents of common cultures conducting war between the colony and the establishing country.
    The fight in America was to make the British 'go home', 'get out'. That isn't a revolution, it's an expulsion.
     
  6. whitehall
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    whitehall Gold Member

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    The Colonies were subjects of King George and they took up arms against the monarchy. I'd say it qualifies as a Revolution.
     
  7. Middleoftheroad
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    Middleoftheroad Active Member

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    Well I've now looked at 3 different dictionaries and wikipedia, and the determination I've come to......

    I dunno. It really could go either way. Many sources say it is the overthrow of the government. Which means that government would be ended. In the American Revolution that government was not ended. King George of England, was still King George of England, he was most certainly NOT overthrown. Other sources don't make this claim.

    I guess from the American side it could be seen as a revolution and from the English side as a rebellion?
     
  8. hjmick
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    hjmick Gold Member

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    First and foremost, it was treason. Had they failed, they all most assuredly would have been hung.

    Brave men indeed.
     
  9. there4eyeM
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    there4eyeM unlicensed metaphysician

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    As to their sexual abilities, no one can say for sure. If the English had captured them, they almost certainly would have been executed, and perhaps hanged.
     
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  10. hjmick
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    hjmick Gold Member

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    Damn. I don't often do that...
     

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