Kalam
Senior Member
- Mar 5, 2009
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Nope. After reading some of what he wrote on my own, though, I've concluded that his analysis can be dismissed as the ramblings of an irrational Islamophobe. The suggestion that the Medieval period in Europe had its origins in Islam is an argument of such historical ignorance that I can only wonder how the author calls himself a "historian" with a straight face. If Muslims are to blame for European barbarism, one can only wonder why we tended to be morally superior to them.I'm sure you're familiar with John O'neil's interpretations: