montelatici
Gold Member
- Feb 5, 2014
- 18,686
- 2,107
- 280
OK, but how did that negate the Palestinian's inalienable rights?P F TINMORE, et al,
I'm not confused at all.
In 1948, the Gaza Strip was occupied by Egypt; the All Palestine Government (APG) was the client state administrator (a merged element of the Egyptian Military Administration) for Egypt, back by Egyptian Occupation Forces. This remained so until 1959 when the President of Egypt annulled the APG and the Occupation was transferred to the Egyptian Military Constabulary (Military Governorship). This remained the status quo until the Egyptian forces were pushed-out by the advance of the Israeli Defense Force (IDF) in 1967.
As the IDF advanced over the Egyptian Occupation, and control was established, Israel assumed responsibility over the territory formerly occupied by the Egyptians.
Most Respectfully,
R
It didn't as you well know, it was the Palestinians themselves that negated their own inalienable rights when they were not allowed to form a state under the control of the occupying powers of Egypt and Jordan. Nothing to do with the Jews, Zionist or Israelis and all to do with the arab nationalists
As you well know, and try to hide behind the Jewish propaganda, it negated the rights of the Palestinians left in the territory illegally assigned to the Europeans. The gerrymandering of the border to facilitate a slight European Jew majority (about 53%) in the territory assigned to the Europeans was a clear negation of the Christian's and Muslim's rights to self-determination on their own land. While unsuccessful, the non-Jews and their allies were simply attempting to prevent re-colonization on the part of other Europeans when the British left.