The Bloodline

[Book of Jeremiah]

The evidence here is irrefutable. The Bloodline comes from the Father. Not the Mother. For many years my Jewish friends have always told me that the Bloodline came from the mother. Not the Father. At the time I didn't find it important to dispute the point but recently the Lord pointed out to me it is very important because His blood was from His Father ( God ) not from his mother, Mary. So here is the evidence that demands a verdict and the verdict is in. The Bloodline is from the Father.

We can begin with the scientific evidence and Scripture presented by this man:

The Chemistry Of The Blood -by M.R. DeHaan, M.D.

TESTIMONY OF SCIENCE

Now for the sake of some of the skeptics who may doubt these statements let me quote from a few reliable authorities. In Howell’s Textbook of Physiology, Second Edition, pages 885 and 886, I read:

"For the purpose of understanding its general functions it is sufficient to recall that the placenta consists essentially of vascular chorionic papillae from the foetus (the unborn child) bathed in the large blood spaces of the decidual membrane of the mother. The fetal and maternal blood DO NOT COME INTO ACTUAL CONTACT. THEY ARE SEPARATED FROM EACH OTHER by the walls of the fetal blood vessels and the epithelial layers of the chorionic villae."

Or let me quote from Williams’ Practice of Obstetrics, Third Edition, page 133. Here I quote,

"The fetal blood in the vessels of the chorionic villae AT NO TIME GAINS ACCESS TO THE MATERNAL BLOOD in the intervillous space, BEING SEPARATED FROM ONE ANOTHER by the double layer of chorionic epithelium."

And from page 136 of the same recognized textbook I quote,

"Normally there is no communication between the fetal blood and the maternal blood."

Now for the benefit of those of you who may be nurses, let me quote from a textbook which is familiar to you. Quoting from "Nurse’s Handbook of Obstetrics" by Louise Zabriskie, R.N., Fifth Edition, page 75:

"When the circulation of the blood begins in the embryo, it remains separate and distinct from that of the mother. All food and waste material which are interchanged between the embryo and the mother must pass through the blood vessel walls from one circulation to the other."

And from page 82 of the same book --

"The foetus receives its nourishment and oxygen from the mothers blood into its own through the medium of the placenta. The fetal heart pumps blood through the arteries of the umbilical cord into the placental vessels, which, looping in and out of the uterine tissue and lying in close contact with the uterine vessels, permit a diffusion, through their walls, of waste products from child to mother and of nourishment and oxygen from mother to child. As has been said, this interchange is effected by the process of osmosis, and there is no direct mingling of the two blood currents. In other words, no maternal blood actually flows to the foetus, nor is there any direct fetal blood flow to the mother."

 

[PratchettFan]

The "bloodline" is merely a euphemism for the genetic code. That comes equally from the mother and the father.

 

[Book of Jeremiah]

Throughout scripture we see the Jews are referred to as the children of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Note that the scriptures do not refer to the Jews as the children of Sarah, Rebecca and Rachel. There is a reason for this. The Jews are the children of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Rebecca and Rachel were both Gentiles. So was the mother of Boaz and Obed. ( Both Gentiles ) Had the Bloodline depended upon the Jewish women, the 12 tribes of Israel would not be Jewish. Yet the Torah is clear that the 12 Tribes of Israel are Jewish. So how did the Jewish people ever come to believe that the bloodline came through the mother? By the teachings of the Halacha. Who wrote the Halacha? Sages.

The Halacha is not found in the Torah. It is a separate work written by man.

It is written:

God is not a man that he should lie nor the son of man that he should repent.

When we are confronted with Written Word of God vs the word of a man - we know that it is the man that is mistaken. Every time.

God makes no mistakes. Get ready because this scripture from Numbers is very important in revealing exactly "who God is".

 

[Delta4Embassy]

In Judaism, God is refered to both as male and female. Hebrew has no neutral gender words which would have been most accurate so instead they used both. So claiming Jesus is the son on his father's side falls apart from the outset. His dad isn't male.

"G-d is Neither Male nor Female

This follows directly from the fact that G-d has no physical form. As one rabbi explained it to me, G-d has no body, no genitalia, therefore the very idea that G-d is male or female is patently absurd. We refer to G-d using masculine terms simply for convenience's sake, because Hebrew has no neutral gender; G-d is no more male than a table is.

Although we usually speak of G-d in masculine terms, there are times when we refer to G-d using feminine terms. The Shechinah, the manifestation of G-d's presence that fills the universe, is conceived of in feminine terms, and the word Shechinah is a feminine word. "

Judaism 101: The Nature of G-d

 

[Book of Jeremiah]

The "bloodline" is merely a euphemism for the genetic code. That comes equally from the mother and the father.

Science has proven you wrong. Examine the evidence. There is no "euphenism" here to use as an escape clause, Pratchettfan. This is hard evidence and it points directly to the Cross of Jesus Christ who shed His Blood ( the Blood of His Father ) as perfect, divine, and the only Blood that could redeem mankind.

Address the evidence or do not address the evidence but do not skirt the issue because the bottom line here is the Bloodline comes from the Father and the Father determines whether you are Jewish or not. It is a revelation of those who have been marked by the Blood of Jesus Christ belonging to the Father and if a person is not marked by the Blood of Jesus Christ he is not part of the family. This is confirmed in the book of Romans. I will be addressing that later. Right now we will examine the scientific evidence proving Scripture correct. Thanks for reading!

 

[Delta4Embassy]

Throughout scripture we see the Jews are referred to as the children of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Note that the scriptures do not refer to the Jews as the children of Sarah, Rebecca and Rachel. There is a reason for this. The Jews are the children of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Rebecca and Rachel were both Gentiles. So was the mother of Boaz and Obed. ( Both Gentiles ) Had the Bloodline depended upon the Jewish women, the 12 tribes of Israel would not be Jewish. Yet the Torah is clear that the 12 Tribes of Israel are Jewish. So how did the Jewish people ever come to believe that the bloodline came through the mother? By the teachings of the Halacha. Who wrote the Halacha? Sages.

The Halacha is not found in the Torah. It is a separate work written by man.

It is written:

God is not a man that he should lie nor the son of man that he should repent.

When we are confronted with Written Word of God vs the word of a man - we know that it is the man that is mistaken. Every time.

God makes no mistakes. Get ready because this scripture from Numbers is very important in revealing exactly "who God is".

Also, halacha is Jewish law which IS in Torah (and the rest of the Tanach.) Halacha is not therefore some discrete thing like say Talmud is.

 

[Book of Jeremiah]

In Judaism, God is refered to both as male and female. Hebrew has no neutral gender words which would have been most accurate so instead they used both. So claiming Jesus is the son on his father's side falls apart from the outset. His dad isn't male.

"G-d is Neither Male nor Female

This follows directly from the fact that G-d has no physical form. As one rabbi explained it to me, G-d has no body, no genitalia, therefore the very idea that G-d is male or female is patently absurd. We refer to G-d using masculine terms simply for convenience's sake, because Hebrew has no neutral gender; G-d is no more male than a table is.

Although we usually speak of G-d in masculine terms, there are times when we refer to G-d using feminine terms. The Shechinah, the manifestation of G-d's presence that fills the universe, is conceived of in feminine terms, and the word Shechinah is a feminine word. "

Judaism 101: The Nature of G-d

Once again, Delta, I know what you are speaking of but this has no application whatsoever to the fact that God's blood was running through the veins of Jesus Christ and was shed at Cross for our redemption. Nor does it address the point that the blood comes from the Father and not the mother therein making the sons of Abraham Jews. Not Sarah. It is important to address this as there is alot of misinformation on this subject and we are not interested in the teachings of the Halacha - which were written by sages - but rather by the Written Word of God alone. Science does back Scriptures of the Torah 100% as you can see here.

 

[Book of Jeremiah]

I had the honor of sharing this with a friend whose mother is Gentile and whose father is Jewish as was his father! He told me that he had always wondered about it because he had always felt he was 100% Jewish! When he reviewed the evidence in the presence of a doctor who could not refute it as false - and then examined the scripture evidence? He suddenly realized he had been right all along. He was indeed 100% Jewish. It was an emotional moment and I felt overwhelmed for him. What an amazing thing to learn after so many years! As the subject came up on this board by a man who was researching his own roots - I thought this would be a good time to share it with everyone.

 

[editec]

Oh my word, kid... you are truly insane.

 

[Book of Jeremiah]

Throughout scripture we see the Jews are referred to as the children of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Note that the scriptures do not refer to the Jews as the children of Sarah, Rebecca and Rachel. There is a reason for this. The Jews are the children of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Rebecca and Rachel were both Gentiles. So was the mother of Boaz and Obed. ( Both Gentiles ) Had the Bloodline depended upon the Jewish women, the 12 tribes of Israel would not be Jewish. Yet the Torah is clear that the 12 Tribes of Israel are Jewish. So how did the Jewish people ever come to believe that the bloodline came through the mother? By the teachings of the Halacha. Who wrote the Halacha? Sages.

The Halacha is not found in the Torah. It is a separate work written by man.

It is written:

God is not a man that he should lie nor the son of man that he should repent.

When we are confronted with Written Word of God vs the word of a man - we know that it is the man that is mistaken. Every time.

God makes no mistakes. Get ready because this scripture from Numbers is very important in revealing exactly "who God is".

Also, halacha is Jewish law which IS in Torah (and the rest of the Tanach.) Halacha is not therefore some discrete thing like say Talmud is.

Wrong again. The Halacha was written by Sages. While the Halacha quotes the Torah the Torah does NOT quote the Halacha. This is confirmed by Rabbi's so you will have to review what you have been taught because it is a mixture, Delta. There is no mixture with Truth. It is either 100% truth or it isn't. We are addressing the truth today. The Bloodline is from the Father and not the Mother.

 

[Book of Jeremiah]

In other words, Delta? There is not adding to the Word of God. It is either in there? Or it isn't. As it is written:

God in not a man that he should lie nor the son of man that he should repent.

( the Halacha was written by sages )

 

[Unkotare]

You're getting your chocolate in your peanut butter, kid.

 

[Delta4Embassy]

In Judaism, God is refered to both as male and female. Hebrew has no neutral gender words which would have been most accurate so instead they used both. So claiming Jesus is the son on his father's side falls apart from the outset. His dad isn't male.

"G-d is Neither Male nor Female

This follows directly from the fact that G-d has no physical form. As one rabbi explained it to me, G-d has no body, no genitalia, therefore the very idea that G-d is male or female is patently absurd. We refer to G-d using masculine terms simply for convenience's sake, because Hebrew has no neutral gender; G-d is no more male than a table is.

Although we usually speak of G-d in masculine terms, there are times when we refer to G-d using feminine terms. The Shechinah, the manifestation of G-d's presence that fills the universe, is conceived of in feminine terms, and the word Shechinah is a feminine word. "

Judaism 101: The Nature of G-d

Once again, Delta, I know what you are speaking of but this has no application whatsoever to the fact that God's blood was running through the veins of Jesus Christ and was shed at Cross for our redemption. Nor does it address the point that the blood comes from the Father and not the mother therein making the sons of Abraham Jews. Not Sarah. It is important to address this as there is alot of misinformation on this subject and we are not interested in the teachings of the Halacha - which were written by sages - but rather by the Written Word of God alone. Science does back Scriptures of the Torah 100% as you can see here.

God has no sex, therefore no body and no blood for Jesus to have in his veins. Only blood in his veins came from his human mother Mary and human father (whoever that was.)

I've always figured Mary must have been raped and then invented the divine birth as a cover against what for her at that time would have been ridicule if not accusation and shame like seen in Muslim countries today in the cases of rape. That 'the rape victim is to blame' in Muslim countries isn't from Islam so much as that culture which existed prior to Islam.

But people will believe anything they want despite the facts. The whole lineage issue of Jesus has been dispelled before. When challenged by Jewish theologians, the Vatican desperately tried refuting the facts coming from the Bible itself but failed.

Very issue you're discussing below:

The Catholic Church's Response to Our Critique of Christian Credibility - Lawrence Kelemen, Permission To Receive

 

[PratchettFan]

The "bloodline" is merely a euphemism for the genetic code. That comes equally from the mother and the father.

Science has proven you wrong. Examine the evidence. There is no "euphenism" here to use as an escape clause, Pratchettfan. This is hard evidence and it points directly to the Cross of Jesus Christ who shed His Blood ( the Blood of His Father ) as perfect, divine, and the only Blood that could redeem mankind.

Address the evidence or do not address the evidence but do not skirt the issue because the bottom line here is the Bloodline comes from the Father and the Father determines whether you are Jewish or not. It is a revelation of those who have been marked by the Blood of Jesus Christ belonging to the Father and if a person is not marked by the Blood of Jesus Christ he is not part of the family. This is confirmed in the book of Romans. I will be addressing that later. Right now we will examine the scientific evidence proving Scripture correct. Thanks for reading!

Sigh..... Let me see if I can explain this to you, though I would think your parents should have done it instead.

When a mommy and a daddy love each other, the daddy will sometimes insert his penis inside the mommy. He will then release semen which will make its way inside her and fertilize an egg. That makes a baby. The DNA of both the mommy and daddy join together to make another human being. The daddy does not (and please pay attention here because it is very important) bleed into the mommy. There is no exchange of blood and at no time is there any connection of any sort between the baby and the daddy while the baby is inside the mommy. The only thing the daddy gives to the baby is his genetic code.... no blood.

The science you are using has absolutely nothing to do with what you are talking about.

 

[Unkotare]

Parthenogenesis occurs in nature sometimes.

 

[Book of Jeremiah]

In Judaism, God is refered to both as male and female. Hebrew has no neutral gender words which would have been most accurate so instead they used both. So claiming Jesus is the son on his father's side falls apart from the outset. His dad isn't male.

"G-d is Neither Male nor Female

This follows directly from the fact that G-d has no physical form. As one rabbi explained it to me, G-d has no body, no genitalia, therefore the very idea that G-d is male or female is patently absurd. We refer to G-d using masculine terms simply for convenience's sake, because Hebrew has no neutral gender; G-d is no more male than a table is.

Although we usually speak of G-d in masculine terms, there are times when we refer to G-d using feminine terms. The Shechinah, the manifestation of G-d's presence that fills the universe, is conceived of in feminine terms, and the word Shechinah is a feminine word. "

Judaism 101: The Nature of G-d

Once again, Delta, I know what you are speaking of but this has no application whatsoever to the fact that God's blood was running through the veins of Jesus Christ and was shed at Cross for our redemption. Nor does it address the point that the blood comes from the Father and not the mother therein making the sons of Abraham Jews. Not Sarah. It is important to address this as there is alot of misinformation on this subject and we are not interested in the teachings of the Halacha - which were written by sages - but rather by the Written Word of God alone. Science does back Scriptures of the Torah 100% as you can see here.

God has no sex, therefore no body and no blood for Jesus to have in his veins. Only blood in his veins came from his human mother Mary and human father (whoever that was.)

I've always figured Mary must have been raped and then invented the divine birth as a cover against what for her at that time would have been ridicule if not accusation and shame like seen in Muslim countries today in the cases of rape. That 'the rape victim is to blame' in Muslim countries isn't from Islam so much as that culture which existed prior to Islam.

But people will believe anything they want despite the facts. The whole lineage issue of Jesus has been dispelled before. When challenged by Jewish theologians, the Vatican desperately tried refuting the facts coming from the Bible itself but failed.

Very issue you're discussing below:

The Catholic Church's Response to Our Critique of Christian Credibility - Lawrence Kelemen, Permission To Receive

The Doctrine of Lea summed up the Catholic response to Christian credibility when they stated in the doctrine that christians and Jews and non Catholics were the "pestilent ones" that must be "cleansed" in order to preserve "The Church". During the inquisition they nailed the roofs of the mouths of christians in order to keep them from preaching the Gospel. ( they were also burned at the stake ) I am well aware of the Doctrine of Lea but it appears many are not aware that the Doctrine of Lea is intact to this very day. The lineage issue of Jesus has been proven by this scientific evidence and also the Scriptures of the Holy Bible that confirm this science to be true because the Bloodline comes through the father. Not the mother. Jewish mothers are a great blessing but THE Blessing comes through the Father. Not the Mother. Jewish father? You're Jewish. No Jewish father? You are not Jewish. It is the reverse of what you've been told. I understand the newness of it all is shocking to some of you but you'll get used to the idea. It was Gods after all. Thanks for reading.

 

[Book of Jeremiah]

The Chemistry Of The Blood -by M.R. DeHaan, M.D.JESUS SINLESS
The Bible teaches in addition that Jesus was a SINLESS man. While all men from Adam to this day are born with Adam’s sinful nature, and, therefore, are subject to the curse and eternal death, the Man Jesus was without sin and, therefore, DEATHLESS until He took the sin of others upon Himself and died THEIR death. Now while Jesus was of Adam's race according to the flesh yet He did not inherit Adam's nature. This alone will prove that sin is not transmitted through the flesh. It is transmitted through the blood and not the flesh, and even though Jesus was of the "Seed of David according to the flesh" this could not make him a sinner.


God has made of ONE BLOOD ALL THE NATIONS of the earth. Sinful heredity is transmitted through the blood and not through the flesh. Even though Jesus, therefore, received His flesh, His body from a sinful race, He could still be sinless as long as not a drop blood of this sinful race entered His veins. God must find a way whereby Jesus could be perfectly human according to the flesh and yet not have the blood of sinful humanity. That was the problem solved by the virgin birth.


ORIGIN OF THE BLOOD
It is now definitely known that the blood which flows in an unborn babies arteries and veins is not derived from the mother but is produced within the body of the foetus itself only after the introduction of the male sperm. An unfertilized ovum can never develop blood since the female egg does not by itself contain the elements essential for the production of this blood. It is only after the male element has entered the ovum that blood can develop. As a very simple illustration of this, think of the egg of a hen. An unfertilized egg is just an ovum on a much larger scale than the human ovum. You may incubate this unfertilized hens egg but it will never develop. It will decay and become rotten, but no chick will result. Let that egg be fertilized by the introduction of the male sperm and incubation will bring to light the presence of LIFE IN THAT EGG. After a few hours it visibly develops. In a little while red streaks occur in the egg denoting the presence of Blood. This can never occur and does never occur until THE MALE SPERM HAS BEEN UNITED WITH THE FEMALE OVUM. The male element has added life to the egg. Life is in the blood according to scripture, for Moses says:

"For the life of the flesh is in the blood." (Leviticus 17:11). "For it is the life of all flesh; the blood of it is for the life thereof."

Leviticus 17:14

Since there is no life in the egg until the male sperm unites with it, and the life is in the blood, it follows that the male sperm is the source of the blood, the seed of life. Think it through.


NO MOTHERS BLOOD

For this very reason, it is unnecessary that a single drop of blood be given to the developing embryo in the womb of the mother. Such is the case according to science. The mother provides the foetus (the unborn developing infant) with the nutritive elements for the building of that little body in the secret of her bosom, but all the blood which forms in that little body is formed in the embryo itself and only as a result of the contribution of the male parent. From the time of conception to the time of birth of the infant not ONE SINGLE DROP OF BLOOD ever passes from mother to child. The placenta that mass of temporary tissue known better as “afterbirth,” forming the union between mother and child is so constructed that although all the soluble nutritive elements such as proteins, fats, carbohydrates, salts, minerals and even antibodies pass freely from mother to child and the waste products of the child's metabolism are passed back to the mothers circulation, no actual interchange of a single drop of blood ever occurs normally. All the blood which is in that child is produced within the child itself as a result of the introduction of the male sperm. The mother contributes no blood at all.


TESTIMONY OF SCIENCE
Now for the sake of some of the skeptics who may doubt these statements let me quote from a few reliable authorities. In Howell’s Textbook of Physiology, Second Edition, pages 885 and 886, I read:

"For the purpose of understanding its general functions it is sufficient to recall that the placenta consists essentially of vascular chorionic papillae from the foetus (the unborn child) bathed in the large blood spaces of the decidual membrane of the mother. The fetal and maternal blood DO NOT COME INTO ACTUAL CONTACT. THEY ARE SEPARATED FROM EACH OTHER by the walls of the fetal blood vessels and the epithelial layers of the chorionic villae."

Or let me quote from Williams’ Practice of Obstetrics, Third Edition, page 133. Here I quote,

"The fetal blood in the vessels of the chorionic villae AT NO TIME GAINS ACCESS TO THE MATERNAL BLOOD in the intervillous space, BEING SEPARATED FROM ONE ANOTHER by the double layer of chorionic epithelium."

And from page 136 of the same recognized textbook I quote,

"Normally there is no communication between the fetal blood and the maternal blood."

Now for the benefit of those of you who may be nurses, let me quote from a textbook which is familiar to you. Quoting from "Nurse’s Handbook of Obstetrics" by Louise Zabriskie, R.N., Fifth Edition, page 75:

"When the circulation of the blood begins in the embryo, it remains separate and distinct from that of the mother. All food and waste material which are interchanged between the embryo and the mother must pass through the blood vessel walls from one circulation to the other."

And from page 82 of the same book --

"The foetus receives its nourishment and oxygen from the mothers blood into its own through the medium of the placenta. The fetal heart pumps blood through the arteries of the umbilical cord into the placental vessels, which, looping in and out of the uterine tissue and lying in close contact with the uterine vessels, permit a diffusion, through their walls, of waste products from child to mother and of nourishment and oxygen from mother to child. As has been said, this interchange is effected by the process of osmosis, and there is no direct mingling of the two blood currents. In other words, no maternal blood actually flows to the foetus, nor is there any direct fetal blood flow to the mother."


GOD'S WONDERFUL PROVISION
How wonderfully God prepared for the virgin birth of His Son. When He created woman He made her so that no blood would be able to pass from her to her offspring. That blood is the result of the male. Since Adam was the federal head of the race, it is HIS BLOOD which transmits Adam's Sin. In order to produce a sinless man and yet be the son of Adam, God must provide a way whereby that man would have a human body derived from Adam but have not a drop of Adam's sinful blood. Right here is the scientific biological reason for the sinlessness of the Man Christ Jesus. Some have tried to answer the question, “How could He be sinless and yet born of a woman?” by making Mary the “Immaculate Virgin.” That, however, does not answer the question of how JESUS was sinless since it is through the male that the bloodline runs.

Not only is this a scientific fact, but it is plainly taught in Scripture that Jesus partook of human flesh without Adam's blood. In Hebrews 2:14 we read,

"Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood. He also himself likewise took part of the same -- "
_____________________________

Jesus did not have the blood of Adam but of God. It is confirmed in scripture. The bloodline coming from the Father is all presented here. Unless you can prove it wrong it stands. So far it has been presented to a Doctor and group of Jews who after examination could say nothing to refute the evidence. It is all factual. It was very good news for at least one Jew present in the discussion as he learned that very day he was a full blooded Jew.

 

[Jroc]

Once again, Delta, I know what you are speaking of but this has no application whatsoever to the fact that God's blood was running through the veins of Jesus Christ and was shed at Cross for our redemption. Nor does it address the point that the blood comes from the Father and not the mother therein making the sons of Abraham Jews. Not Sarah. It is important to address this as there is alot of misinformation on this subject and we are not interested in the teachings of the Halacha - which were written by sages - but rather by the Written Word of God alone. Science does back Scriptures of the Torah 100% as you can see here.

God has no sex, therefore no body and no blood for Jesus to have in his veins. Only blood in his veins came from his human mother Mary and human father (whoever that was.)

I've always figured Mary must have been raped and then invented the divine birth as a cover against what for her at that time would have been ridicule if not accusation and shame like seen in Muslim countries today in the cases of rape. That 'the rape victim is to blame' in Muslim countries isn't from Islam so much as that culture which existed prior to Islam.

But people will believe anything they want despite the facts. The whole lineage issue of Jesus has been dispelled before. When challenged by Jewish theologians, the Vatican desperately tried refuting the facts coming from the Bible itself but failed.

Very issue you're discussing below:

The Catholic Church's Response to Our Critique of Christian Credibility - Lawrence Kelemen, Permission To Receive

The Doctrine of Lea summed up the Catholic response to Christian credibility when they stated in the doctrine that christians and Jews and non Catholics were the "pestilent ones" that must be "cleansed" in order to preserve "The Church". During the inquisition they nailed the roofs of the mouths of christians in order to keep them from preaching the Gospel. ( they were also burned at the stake ) I am well aware of the Doctrine of Lea but it appears many are not aware that the Doctrine of Lea is intact to this very day. The lineage issue of Jesus has been proven by this scientific evidence and also the Scriptures of the Holy Bible that confirm this science to be true because the Bloodline comes through the father. Not the mother. Jewish mothers are a great blessing but THE Blessing comes through the Father. Not the Mother. Jewish father? You're Jewish. No Jewish father? You are not Jewish. It is the reverse of what you've been told. I understand the newness of it all is shocking to some of you but you'll get used to the idea. It was Gods after all. Thanks for reading.

If it were left up to the Christians to determine who is a Jew. there would be no Jews around today.