That's correct. They did not have the same rights. There was discrimination on the basis of race, which is illegal per the Constitution.
On what basis is there discrimination in marriage?
Answered in Post #120 already.
A man can marry a woman, a woman cannot marry a woman. The basis of discrimination is on gender which is unconstitutional without a compelling government interest - something that does not exist when comparing like situated couples. Those couples being tax paying, law abiding, US Citizen, infertile, consenting, adults in different-sex relationships and tax paying, law abiding, US Citizen, infertile, consenting, adults in same-sex relationships.
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Just curious. You brought fertility into this twice.
Would not Roe V. Wade prohibit this as a basis due to reproductive privacy rights?
Not arguing, simply curious
It's a strawman because libs do not understand the argument.
The argument goes like this: States have a compelling interest in producing future citizens. Therefore the state accords recognition to unions that are likely to produce good citizens, which have been proven to be married couples, i.e. a man and a woman.
The idiots don't understand the difference between a tendency and a rule. So their retort is we allow people who are infertile to marry. That is irrelevant but when you point that out to them, they tend to disappear, only to mention the same nonsense in a different thread.