Zone1 Jews confronted with Tanakh

Lame argument, to claim the Bible (OT) is mistranslated from Hebrew.

Most Jews 2000 years ago were using the Greek Septuagint and that was considered the standard and accurately translated.

Translations are not the issue, Talmudic Judaism (which is newer than Christianity) just does not accept the beliefs of ancient Israelites.


As we’ve seen in many threads here, Talmudic Jews claim the Messiah will be a mere man, and not divine. Yet they can’t point to any text to back up this claim.
What are you talking about?
I always pointed to the answer to that with source:
Hilchos Melachim 11:3-4
and in Isaiah if I recall correctly Moshiach is a servant (not served). And out of the lineage of Aaron (a Kohanim)(a human)
in the scrolls: lQS lX, ll which seems to be fragment omitted from 4QSe(4Q259)

but this is common sense the head priest comes out of the gathering of Kohanim which in slang were called clouds for their puffy white robes appeared like clouds when gathered.

Hence Daniel saying son of man comes out or with the clouds(gathered hosts) and Theslonians saying with the call of the arch (top) angel (priest) to come up to zion to the gathering of priests (clouds).

And that gathering of Kohanim is to the temple (MIKdash) in the arch priests name, to the city that carries his and his God's name(God's description type name is not to be confused with a physical persona name because God is not a man nor form)*.
YeruShalem would carry the name. (1 Kings 11:36 &
in dead sea scrolls: Words of the Archangel Michael scroll 4Q529, 6Q23)
*Sources for God is not a man nor form:
"Isaiah 42:8 we can't pray to any image of anything physical- Exodus 20:3-7 and Deuteronomy 5:8-10
God is not a man nor form-(Isaiah 2:22, 14:13, I Samuel 15:29, Numbers 23:19, and Hosea 11:9, Deuteronomy 4:11-12 and the 13 major principles of the Jewish faith based on the Rambam's teaching of "ain lo demus haguf ve'ayno guf" -- that Hashem has no physical form.)
 
Most Jews 2000 years ago were using the Greek Septuagint and that was considered the standard and accurately translated.
How do you substantiate this claim? Judaism has relied on the Hebrew written text pretty consistently since before temple times and your claim that something is "considered accurate" is a judgment. The fact happens to be that the talmudic discussion allows Greek as a reasonable language in which to write certain texts but that doesn't mean that anyone's particular translation is "considered the standard" or "accurate."
Translations are not the issue, Talmudic Judaism (which is newer than Christianity) just does not accept the beliefs of ancient Israelites.
That would be your assessment of it. Judaism teaches otherwise.
As we’ve seen in many threads here, Talmudic Jews claim the Messiah will be a mere man, and not divine. Yet they can’t point to any text to back up this claim.
you have two problems here. Not only is there no text that actually promises anything different from a return to theocracy under a new human king (thus automatically invalidting any Christian reading) but there are texts that establish that any and every messiah was a human male.
 
O Lord, Who are my power and my strength and my refuge in the day of trouble, to You nations will come from the ends of the earth and say, "Only lies have our fathers handed down to us, emptiness in which there is nothing of any avail! (Jeremiah (Yirmiyahu) 16:19)

And..


"Surely the Lord GOD will do nothing, but he revealeth his secret unto his servants the prophets."

Amos 3:7 (KJV), clearly shows that:

1. God did not become a man, because He did not tell His prophets He would.

2. God did not supplant the Torah with a NewTESTament, because He did not say He would, and

3. There is no such thing as a second coming.

Christians practice a buffet religion! Their leaders pick and choose what verses they want and discard those that stand in the way of their pagan dead-man god religion. Ask yourself, why? Answer honestly!
 
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O Lord, Who are my power and my strength and my refuge in the day of trouble, to You nations will come from the ends of the earth and say, "Only lies have our fathers handed down to us, emptiness in which there is nothing of any avail! (Jeremiah (Yirmiyahu) 16:19)
try again----there are idiosyncrasies marking all languages---in hebrew---the term "nations" virtually always means nations other than Israelites
 
How do you substantiate this claim? Judaism has relied on the Hebrew written text pretty consistently since before temple times and your claim that something is "considered accurate" is a judgment. The fact happens to be that the talmudic discussion allows Greek as a reasonable language in which to write certain texts but that doesn't mean that anyone's particular translation is "considered the standard" or "accurate."
"reasonably accurate" is only that. We usually use a JPS Tanach translation because it's more convenient. But often will refer back to the Hebrew text to get the intended meaning. A translation, no matter how faithful you want it to be, is always some form of interpretation. Easy example, the Hebrew word "melacha" is usually translated as "work". it is as close n English word as you can find, but it does not entirely convey the meaning of tge Hebrew.
 
"reasonably accurate" is only that. We usually use a JPS Tanach translation because it's more convenient. But often will refer back to the Hebrew text to get the intended meaning. A translation, no matter how faithful you want it to be, is always some form of interpretation. Easy example, the Hebrew word "melacha" is usually translated as "work". it is as close n English word as you can find, but it does not entirely convey the meaning of tge Hebrew.
I don't do greek.
 
try again----there are idiosyncrasies marking all languages---in hebrew---the term "nations" virtually always means nations other than Israelites
Nations can also mean the tribes of Israel, within a certain context. But the passage I cited is referring to non-Israelite nations, and I never claimed anything other than that, so what's your point in saying this to me? Did your Yemenite Jewish husband put too much hot sauce in your gefilte fish sandwich?
 
Nations can also mean the tribes of Israel, within a certain context. But the passage I cited is referring to non-Israelite nations, and I never claimed anything other than that, so what's your point in saying this to me? Did your Yemenite Jewish husband put too much hot sauce in your gefilte fish sandwich?
Yemenites, IN GENERAL ----do not particularly like gefilte fish----but he does----more than do I. Each of us does out own hot sauce. Who eats gefilte fish in a sandwich?
 
Thanks for proving my point, Jews don’t know the Bible at all and instead run to some supposed “expert”, who in turn lies to them by telling them the words in those texts don’t really mean what they say.

Some here prove that every day. Most Jews are secular in any case, not Orthodox or ultra-Orthodox, but the latter or a sizable demographic in Israel more so than in the U.S.
 
This is so typical Nazi Luiza sh#t racist OUTCAST Troll.


Hamas supporter in London says the quiet part out loud

“Hitler knew how to deal with these people"

It always has been pure Jew-hatred under the guise of anti-Zionism.

Watch more from @ThevoiceAlexa on the ground at https://t.co/RP773XzDEP.

pic.twitter.com/JpiXSfptLW

— Avi Yemini (@OzraeliAvi) November 11, 2023


tala-e1626449234754-640x400.jpeg




word-image-1565180474606.jpeg


Swastikas over Gaza

1*Y0nQb4BAi-9ccjOJHJUCmw.jpeg



Nazi-Arab Palestine plot
Since WW2
Nazi Palestine
+-+254761279_140.jpg


Outcast racist Luiza also likes to push conspiracy theories. As is users, posters don't post their own opinions individually.


One fool in London says Hitler knew what to do???? Now you're off on a tangent about Arab Nazis?
 
Lame argument, to claim the Bible (OT) is mistranslated from Hebrew.

Most Jews 2000 years ago were using the Greek Septuagint and that was considered the standard and accurately translated.

Translations are not the issue, Talmudic Judaism (which is newer than Christianity) just does not accept the beliefs of ancient Israelites.


As we’ve seen in many threads here, Talmudic Jews claim the Messiah will be a mere man, and not divine. Yet they can’t point to any text to back up this claim.

Jews have been indulging in Messiah fads and cults all along; they just don't like the Christians because they're the most successful and ruined their Temple scam and mocked their 'Master Race' fantasy, is all.

 
What are you talking about?
I always pointed to the answer to that with source:
Hilchos Melachim 11:3-4
and in Isaiah if I recall correctly Moshiach is a servant (not served). And out of the lineage of Aaron (a Kohanim)(a human)
in the scrolls: lQS lX, ll which seems to be fragment omitted from 4QSe(4Q259)

but this is common sense the head priest comes out of the gathering of Kohanim which in slang were called clouds for their puffy white robes appeared like clouds when gathered.

Hence Daniel saying son of man comes out or with the clouds(gathered hosts) and Theslonians saying with the call of the arch (top) angel (priest) to come up to zion to the gathering of priests (clouds).

And that gathering of Kohanim is to the temple (MIKdash) in the arch priests name, to the city that carries his and his God's name(God's description type name is not to be confused with a physical persona name because God is not a man nor form)*.
YeruShalem would carry the name. (1 Kings 11:36 &
in dead sea scrolls: Words of the Archangel Michael scroll 4Q529, 6Q23)
*Sources for God is not a man nor form:
"Isaiah 42:8 we can't pray to any image of anything physical- Exodus 20:3-7 and Deuteronomy 5:8-10
God is not a man nor form-(Isaiah 2:22, 14:13, I Samuel 15:29, Numbers 23:19, and Hosea 11:9, Deuteronomy 4:11-12 and the 13 major principles of the Jewish faith based on the Rambam's teaching of "ain lo demus haguf ve'ayno guf" -- that Hashem has no physical form.)

This is fascinating. Thanks.

but this is common sense the head priest comes out of the gathering of Kohanim which in slang were called clouds for their puffy white robes appeared like clouds when gathered.

Hence Daniel saying son of man comes out or with the clouds(gathered hosts) and Theslonians saying with the call of the arch (top) angel (priest) to come up to zion to the gathering of priests (clouds).
 
you have two problems here. Not only is there no text that actually promises anything different from a return to theocracy under a new human king (thus automatically invalidting any Christian reading) but there are texts that establish that any and every messiah was a human male.
You have a problem, you can’t back up your claims with biblical text.
 
Thanks for proving my point, Jews don’t know the Bible at all and instead run to some supposed “expert”, who in turn lies to them by telling them the words in those texts don’t really mean what they say.

Genesis 19:24 shows there are two Yahweh
יהוה rained upon Sodom and Gomorrah sulfurous fire from יהוה out of heaven—

In Judges 6, Gideon is visited by the Angel of the Lord, who is the Lord.

He is also visited by the Spirit of the Lord:
34 The Spirit of the Lord came upon Gideon, and he blew his trumpet, summoning those who were in Abiezer to follow him



But Talmudic Jews ignore or lie about these scriptures and many more found in the Old Testament.



Orthodox and ultra-Orthodox practice taqiyya same as Muslims do; it's where Islamists got it in the first place.
 

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