CDZ Economic normativism and Economic positivism/empiricism

Are you preponderantly (or more) an economic positivist or normativist?

  • Positivist, preponderantly

  • Normativist, preponderantly

  • I haven't evaluated my principles enough to know which I preponderantly am.


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usmbguest5318

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Without resorting to complex philosophical explanations:
  • Economic normativism is a way of approaching/concluding on a matter based predominantly on what one thinks "should be" or "should happen." What need one know about the details of a matter to form normative conclusions about it? Nothing really. Economic normativists think of themselves as wanting to/aiming to "do right" by some group/individual that are their "chosen ones," thereby "cherry-picking" economic "winners and losers."
  • Economic positivism/empiricism is a way of approaching/concluding on a matter based predominantly on what is shown regarding the totality of economic cost-benefit analysis. Economic positivists are largely unconcerned about who be the "winners and losers." Instead, they say "here are the rules of the games to which we've all long agreed. Use the resources available to you to maximize your satisfaction/utility given those rules." Pure positivists do not make judgement about whether a given action is good or bad.
There is some overlap between the two and it's this: positivists and nomativists are, to varying degrees, okay with there being rules that seek to bring "up to par" as goes ensuring that as many individuals as possible are started at comparable (not equal, not identical, but comparable) points of departure.

Can one be an economic positivist and still favor normative stances that don't align what positive economics show? Insofar as one can allow one's emotions to prevail over what is shown "by the math," yes, one can because economic normativism is about the moral/ethical value judgements one makes about how resources should be used and/or not used. Can everything be evaluated, wholly or preponderantly, using empirical methods? No, but whole lot can.

Consider the example of the "college degree premium":
In contemporary societies, there is a strong college wage premium. That is to say, people who go to college make more money, on average, than people who don't.

Normativists ask should this premium should exist, and they find that it should or should not, depending on what they see as more and less valuable to one's life. Furthermore, normatists observe the positive economics pertaining to the incomes of people having and lacking college degrees and determine that people (or more people) should go to college, and that public policy should promote, perhaps even subsidize, people's college attendance. Implicit in any normative conclusion such as the preceding is the assumption that "everyone" agrees that the course that most likely will produce the most labor-related earnings is the best course for each of us to follow. [1]

Positivists, on the other hand, refrain from asserting that one should (good) or should not (bad) go to college. Instead they say that if one wants to maximize the earnings of one's labor (maximize the financial satisfaction obtained from working), graduating well from from college bodes quite well for one doing just that. They'd say too that in comparison to certain other ways of doing so, it's among the more efficacious means to the noted end. Other positivists would analyze the cost of going to college in general (or going to a specific college) to determine whether, given what type labor one wants to sell, going to college will produce enough of a wage premium, in the long run, to offset the economic cost of obtaining a/a specific college('s) degree.

As for structuring public policy to subsidize people's college attendance, some positivists condone using public resources that way provided doing so returns more value than is spent/consumed to subsidize them; however, pure economic positivists would say no, period, because subsidies distort the interplay of the "dispassionate hands" of supply and demand, thereby deciding "arbitrarily" who "wins" and who "loses" (or "wins" less).


Note:
  1. That assumption is, of course, not universally true. I and several of my fellow general partners have repeatedly turned down invitations to be considered for appointment to our firm's "C-level." For varying reasons, while each of us thought the increase in income was a good thing, none of us wanted the added responsibility that also comes with those roles. I'm sure we are not the only people running around who've had opportunities we fully understood and chose willfully to let them pass and are quite content with having done so.

One thing that should be clear to most readers is that not many people are pure or near-pure positivists. Indeed, even most economists, despite their research being largely positive, are personally normative when they make certain choices, both personal ones and public policy ones. Obviously, from an argumentation standpoint, the most powerful arguments are those for which the totality of a cost-benefit analysis provides results that align with one's preconceived normative notions. Unfortunately, for many normativists, few and far between are such things, and unfortunately for many positivists, there are lot of normativists, which is to say, there are many stances that normativists hold and for which "the numbers" don't support their ostensibly "kinder and gentler" position, or for which there is as yet no comprehensive and sound analysis that has produced numbers supporting their case.


NOTE:
Whether one is positivist or normativist has nothing to do with whether one is Liberal or Conservative.​


Thread Question:
  • Are you preponderantly (or more) an economic positivist or normativist?
 
First off ... It is technically impossible to identify a normativist's view as "kinder and gentler".

In a situation where "winners and losers" are picked through process, you cannot forget that there are losers.
Because some nit-wit thinks it is okay to have someone lose in order to benefit one or any number of others ... Is not being kind.
If they are willing to use a governmental system to apply their process, with threat of imprisonment for failure to comply ... That is not gentle in the least bit.

To identify the normative point of view as supplying anything other than self-serving unsustainable hogwash is a misrepresentation.
Furthermore ... Economists are simply people who lack the character and people skills necessary to be CPA's ... And ...


Ooops, Sorry ...

Pineapple

.​
 
It is technically impossible to identify a normativist's view as "kinder and gentler".

You'll notice that I preceded that phrase with "ostensibly." I did because I know damn well I cannot attest to what whether a norativist's stance is indeed kinder or gentler. Well, I think most normativist would describe their stance as being the "fair" stance to have, so that's why I chose that diction.
 
First off ... It is technically impossible to identify a normativist's view as "kinder and gentler".

In a situation where "winners and losers" are picked through process, you cannot forget that there are losers.
Because some nit-wit thinks it is okay to have someone lose in order to benefit one or any number of others ... Is not being kind.
If they are willing to use a governmental system to apply their process, with threat of imprisonment for failure to comply ... That is not gentle in the least bit.

To identify the normative point of view as supplying anything other than self-serving unsustainable hogwash is a misrepresentation.
Furthermore ... Economists are simply people who lack the character and people skills necessary to be CPA's ... And ...


Ooops, Sorry ...

Pineapple

.​
To identify the normative point of view as supplying anything other than self-serving unsustainable hogwash is a misrepresentation.

What did I write that you construe as being such a representation?
 
It is technically impossible to identify a normativist's view as "kinder and gentler".

You'll notice that I preceded that phrase with "ostensibly." I did because I know damn well I cannot attest to what whether a norativist's stance is indeed kinder or gentler. Well, I think most normativist would describe their stance as being the "fair" stance to have, so that's why I chose that diction.

It's not a matter of whether or not you can attest to anything ... :dunno:

To suggest that it somehow could be considered "kinder or gentler" ... It what I said was hogwash.
You can either agree with that assertion, disagree with it ... Or simply not care one way or the other.

I didn't pose it as some sort of question ... Nor did I seek your understanding or approval ... :thup:

.
 
It is technically impossible to identify a normativist's view as "kinder and gentler".

You'll notice that I preceded that phrase with "ostensibly." I did because I know damn well I cannot attest to what whether a norativist's stance is indeed kinder or gentler. Well, I think most normativist would describe their stance as being the "fair" stance to have, so that's why I chose that diction.

It's not a matter of whether or not you can attest to anything ... :dunno:

To suggest that it somehow could be considered "kinder or gentler" ... It what I said was hogwash.
You can either agree with that assertion, disagree with it ... Or simply not care one way or the other.

I didn't pose it as some sort of question ... Nor did I seek your understanding or approval ... :thup:

.
To suggest that it somehow could be considered "kinder or gentler" ... It what I said was hogwash.

What part of "ostensibly 'kinder and gentler' " did you not understand?
 
What did I write that you construe as being such a representation?

It was in response to what you posted ... And the idea that the point of view in regards to could possibly be considered as "kinder or gentler".
It wasn't an attack against you nor your opinions ... Just the possibility that normaltivism could be considered as kinder or gentler by any measure ... :dunno:
 
What part of "ostensibly 'kinder and gentler' " did you not understand?

"What part do you think I don't understand" ... Would be an appropriate response to your question ... :thup:
I mean face it ... You seem to be the one having problems with the possible nuances of the language we are using.

.
 
What did I write that you construe as being such a representation?

It was in response to what you posted ... And the idea that the point of view in regards to could possibly be considered as "kinder or gentler".
It wasn't an attack against you nor your opinions ... Just the possibility that normaltivism could be considered as kinder or gentler by any measure ... :dunno:
And the idea that the point of view in regards to could possibly be considered as "kinder or gentler".

You just refuse to acknowledge that what I wrote is that a normative stance is generally offered as an "ostensibly 'kinder and gentler' " stance. Perhaps once you consider the full meaning of the phrase I wrote rather than ignoring the part of it that you don't want to consider, you wouldn't have such a problem with the statement.
 
What part of "ostensibly 'kinder and gentler' " did you not understand?

"What part do you think I don't understand" ... Would be an appropriate response to your question ... :thup:
I mean face it ... You seem to be the one having problems with the possible nuances of the language we are using.

.
"What part do you think I don't understand" ... Would be an appropriate response to your question ...
I won't deign to say what part you don't understand. All I will say is that you keep remarking about the "kinder and gentler" phrase while ignoring that it is modified/qualified by the adverb "ostensibly."
 
What did I write that you construe as being such a representation?

It was in response to what you posted ... And the idea that the point of view in regards to could possibly be considered as "kinder or gentler".
It wasn't an attack against you nor your opinions ... Just the possibility that normaltivism could be considered as kinder or gentler by any measure ... :dunno:
And the idea that the point of view in regards to could possibly be considered as "kinder or gentler".

You just refuse to acknowledge that what I wrote is that a normative stance is generally offered as an "ostensibly 'kinder and gentler' " stance. Perhaps once you consider the full meaning of the phrase I wrote rather than ignoring the part of it that you don't want to consider, you wouldn't have such a problem with the statement.

I am refusing to acknowledge I attempted to refute what you never wrote ... :dunno:
If you insist on making it a matter of offense you take towards what you perceive to be assertion about what you wrote that I never made ... Well, that your problem.

I simply said that normativism could not be considered kinder nor gentler ... And the idea it could was hogwash.
If you think otherwise ... State your case.

.
 
Last edited:
What part of "ostensibly 'kinder and gentler' " did you not understand?

"What part do you think I don't understand" ... Would be an appropriate response to your question ... :thup:
I mean face it ... You seem to be the one having problems with the possible nuances of the language we are using.

.
"What part do you think I don't understand" ... Would be an appropriate response to your question ...
I won't deign to say what part you don't understand. All I will say is that you keep remarking about the "kinder and gentler" phrase while ignoring that it is modified/qualified by the adverb "ostensibly."

I would only be ignoring "ostensibly" ... if you have the misconception I give two wits whether or not you qualified your statement.
My statement has been that attempts to associate normativism with kinder and gentler ... As a possibility by anyone or any number of people ... Is hogwash.

If you disagree ... Make your case.
If you choose to take offense over my statement ... Ask me if I care about your misdirected emotional response to a non-squinter disagreement.

.
 
What did I write that you construe as being such a representation?

It was in response to what you posted ... And the idea that the point of view in regards to could possibly be considered as "kinder or gentler".
It wasn't an attack against you nor your opinions ... Just the possibility that normaltivism could be considered as kinder or gentler by any measure ... :dunno:
And the idea that the point of view in regards to could possibly be considered as "kinder or gentler".

You just refuse to acknowledge that what I wrote is that a normative stance is generally offered as an "ostensibly 'kinder and gentler' " stance. Perhaps once you consider the full meaning of the phrase I wrote rather than ignoring the part of it that you don't want to consider, you wouldn't have such a problem with the statement.

I am refuse to acknowledge I attempted to refute what you never wrote ... :dunno:
If you insist on making it a matter of offense you take towards what you perceive to be assertion about what you wrote that I never made ... Well, that your problem.

I simply said that normativism could not be considered kinder nor gentler ... And the idea it could was hogwash.
If you think otherwise ... State your case.

.
I am refuse to acknowledge I attempted to refute what you never wrote ... :dunno:
:dunno:

I repeat:
you keep remarking about the "kinder and gentler" phrase while ignoring that it is modified/qualified by the adverb "ostensibly."
You just refuse to acknowledge that what I wrote is that a normative stance is generally offered as an "ostensibly 'kinder and gentler' " stance.
You'll notice that I preceded that phrase with "ostensibly." I did because I know damn well I cannot attest to ... whether a norativist's stance is indeed kinder or gentler.
What part of "ostensibly 'kinder and gentler' " did you not understand?

And now you claim that I didn't write "ostensible 'kinder and gentler' "...
...there are many stances that normativists hold and for which "the numbers" don't support their ostensibly "kinder and gentler" position...
 
What part of "ostensibly 'kinder and gentler' " did you not understand?

"What part do you think I don't understand" ... Would be an appropriate response to your question ... :thup:
I mean face it ... You seem to be the one having problems with the possible nuances of the language we are using.

.
"What part do you think I don't understand" ... Would be an appropriate response to your question ...
I won't deign to say what part you don't understand. All I will say is that you keep remarking about the "kinder and gentler" phrase while ignoring that it is modified/qualified by the adverb "ostensibly."

I would only be ignoring "ostensibly" ... if you have the misconception I give two wits whether or not you qualified your statement.
My statement has been that attempts to associate normativism with kinder and gentler ... As a possibility by anyone or any number of people ... Is hogwash.

If you disagree ... Make your case.
If you choose to take offense over my statement ... Ask me if I care about your misdirected emotional response to a non-squinter disagreement.

.
See post 13 and then....

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