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So, your answer is no, you -cannot- present an argument that a ban on ‘assault weapons’ is constitutionalIn Heller, the court struck the DC ban on handguns
In McDonald, the court applied the Heller decision to the states and struck the Chicago ban on handguns.
In both instances, the court struck the bans absent any consideration of rational basis, intermediate scrutiny or strict scrutiny – in effect, they ruled that bans on handguns, on their face, violate the 2nd amendment.
Handguns are, by far, the class of firearm most often used in crime.
Washington DC and Chicago have crime rates considerably higher than the average across the rest of the US.
Given all this, can you present an argument that a ban on ‘assault weapons’, used –far- less often in crimes across a –considerably- larger area, is constitutional?
The bans violated the second amendment, and the courts ruling violated common sense.
Thank you. Run along.