Dear One Cut: The First and Fourteenth Amendment also provide checks and balances on how govt policies are made applied and interpreted. You basically cannot abuse govt to discriminate against people's religion and equal protection of the law.
If the health care mandates, for example, merely required people NOT to impose costs on others without ability to pay and required people to "find some way to cover their costs" (without dictating how, such as requiring insurance which is not the same as directly paying for one's costs), that would not have been intrusive on people's free choice.
The bill went too far by requiring people specifically to "buy insurance" and furthermore, by the govt regulating which people's religious affiliations qualify for exemption or not,
where some people are basically penalized by religious discrimination DEFINED and enforced by govt.
That is clearly unconstitutional. Nor can I see how any liberal politician can continue to make pro-choice arguments against penalizing people if they choose abortion while in this case penalizing taxpayers for choosing to pay directly for health care instead of paying indirectly through insurance!
If people CONSENT to mandates, people have the right to pass laws through govt as "social contracts" the affected parties AGREE to. In general, the spirit of Constitutional law is consent of the governed, equal protection and representation, but the health care mandates violate such standards -- by overriding the consent of the governed, excluding representation of interests, and penalizing people while exempting others based on religious conditions regulated by govt.
You cannot put the letter of the law before the spirit of the law, and expect to make a consistent statement, no matter how "educated and literate" you are at making your arguments. If you fail to include representation and protection of all people's interests EQUALLY, that is political abuse of govt authority to impose a bias in policy. This happens so much, with political bullying by majority-rule and coercion by media, that it has become accepted as commonplace. But that doesn't justify such manipulation of the democratic process, and technically it is against the spirit of Constitutional law as a social contract between people and public institutions based on consent of the governed.
If the health care mandates, for example, merely required people NOT to impose costs on others without ability to pay and required people to "find some way to cover their costs" (without dictating how, such as requiring insurance which is not the same as directly paying for one's costs), that would not have been intrusive on people's free choice.
The bill went too far by requiring people specifically to "buy insurance" and furthermore, by the govt regulating which people's religious affiliations qualify for exemption or not,
where some people are basically penalized by religious discrimination DEFINED and enforced by govt.
That is clearly unconstitutional. Nor can I see how any liberal politician can continue to make pro-choice arguments against penalizing people if they choose abortion while in this case penalizing taxpayers for choosing to pay directly for health care instead of paying indirectly through insurance!
If people CONSENT to mandates, people have the right to pass laws through govt as "social contracts" the affected parties AGREE to. In general, the spirit of Constitutional law is consent of the governed, equal protection and representation, but the health care mandates violate such standards -- by overriding the consent of the governed, excluding representation of interests, and penalizing people while exempting others based on religious conditions regulated by govt.
This is a question for the strict constitutionalists who believe we take the constitution literally, exactly as written.
Section 8 of Article 1 in known as the "enumerated powers" section. Here is where the various powers granted the congress are spelled out. The first article in that section is quoted, verbatim, below.
Section 8
1: The Congress shall have Power To lay and collect Taxes, Duties, Imposts and Excises, to pay the Debts and provide for the common Defence and general Welfare of the United States; but all Duties, Imposts and Excises shall be uniform throughout the United States;
Taking that literally, strictly as written, how does that limit the power of congress to legislate on any social program it chooses so long as it provides for the "general welfare"?
It is quite simple. The founders were educated and very literate. How can you interpret that any other way? Remember though, you are not supposed to interpret, you are to take it literally.
You cannot put the letter of the law before the spirit of the law, and expect to make a consistent statement, no matter how "educated and literate" you are at making your arguments. If you fail to include representation and protection of all people's interests EQUALLY, that is political abuse of govt authority to impose a bias in policy. This happens so much, with political bullying by majority-rule and coercion by media, that it has become accepted as commonplace. But that doesn't justify such manipulation of the democratic process, and technically it is against the spirit of Constitutional law as a social contract between people and public institutions based on consent of the governed.
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