- Banned
- #41
Are you truly saying you do not understand the reason for the 3/5ths person provision in the constitution for the votes of slaves, considering that to form the union slave states had to be included?
The reason to keep blacks in the south ignorant, as you mentioned, played right into the reason for counting slaves (not black people) as 3/5th of a citizen. A slave who was a full voting citizen would've given the south a numerical advantage in elections, and all while the votes of those slaves would've been suspect as being subjected to coercion.
Wait? Are you saying that slaves got to vote? That 3/5th of the slaves got to vote? Let me clarify here before I roll on the ground laughing.
No, I'm saying they were counted for purposes of representation in congress/congressional districts. But it was actually designed to reduce the power of the slave-owning states in the U.S. Congress.
I certainly could've been more clear.
Then why did you not say it THIS way?
Are you truly saying you do not understand the reason for the 3/5ths person provision in the constitution for the REPRESENTATION of slaves, considering that to form the union slave states had to be included?
The reason to keep blacks in the south ignorant, as you mentioned, played right into the reason for counting slaves (not black people) as 3/5th of a citizen. A slave who was a full REPRESENTED citizen would've given the south a numerical advantage in elections, and all while the REPRESENTATION of those slaves would've been suspect as being subjected to coercion
And let me reemphasize part of your last sentence:
and all while the votes of those slaves would've been suspect as being subjected to coercion
Explain to me, if you meant "representation" instead of actually votes by slaves....how is representation subject to coercion? I would like to hear that explanation.
And btw...counting slaves for representation purposes INCREASED the HofR numbers for Southern states....to say that it somehow worked against them is silly at best, dishonest at worst.