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- Feb 22, 2012
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Forgot something; Jordan destroyed JEWISH CEMETARIES and other JEWISH Holy Sites which was against the “ Armistice Agreement “ and Jordan DENIED Israel’s right to those sites which was also AGAINST the “ agreement “ If one or more parties break it; other parties are NOT legally bound to followIt is not as simple as all that.
The land of Palestine was transferred to Palestine by treaty. That territory was defined by international borders.
The Palestinians became citizens of Palestine by international law, by treaty, and by domestic law. Why did the Treaty of Lausanne give citizenship to the Palestinians? Because that is the law. Why did the British give citizenship to the Palestinians? Because that is the law.
Treaties are legal instruments. They must conform to international law. No valid treaty can violate the inalienable rights of a people.
The territory was not "transferred" to anyone, at any time. There was no sovereign to transfer it to. Its not like one country ceding it in treaty and another taking it up. The territory under the Mandate for Palestine (like all the other Mandates) was under Mandate for exactly the reason that there was no sovereign to pass it to. The point of a Mandate is to govern in trust until the people are capable of self-determination and government themselves. This whole concept of "transfer of territory' is a red herring you keep throwing up as a distraction from the real issues.
What WAS part of the legal documentation of the time was the beneficiary of the territory of Palestine -- that is -- the people who were to have self-determination in that territory, the people for whom the British held the territory in trust. The legal documentation of the time (which is still in force today and can not be abrogated) tells us that it was the Jewish people. Further, the documentation tells us that the Jewish people became the beneficiaries of that territory by RIGHT due to their historical sovereignty in that territory. No other peoples are mentioned. So, the STARTING point of the whole conversation is that the territory belongs to the Jewish people, by right, by law.
Now, it IS true that all of the residents of the territory, and all the Jewish immigrants became citizens of what was then called "Palestine" (as a territorial designation -- NOT as a sovereign). Aren't some still citizens of Palestine? And some citizens of Palestine by its new sovereign name -- Israel?
The question you should be asking is why two different citizenships developed in the territory.You wouldn't have a link for that, would you?became citizens of what was then called "Palestine" (as a territorial designation -- NOT as a sovereign).
Of course not.
You need a link to, "Palestine isn't a country"?
I provided a link which stated the Arabs recognized Jordan’s Sovereignty over the W. Bank and E. Jerusalem before 1950 and at that time the land was OFFICIALLY recognized as part of Jordan but of course there is no response.