"A Well Regulated Militia" explained

Because the "original intent" often can't be found, nor be relied on by the actual statute passed.

Take for instance when Hillary Clinton voted to authorize use of force in Iraq, she specifically said, it was not permission to use force, but to give the president leverage.

“Hillary Clinton’s vote wasn’t for war, but simply to pressure Saddam Hussein to allow UN weapons inspectors back into Iraq.”

Is this the intent you would use?
we arent talking about a statute we are talking about the bill of rights, and if someone cant find writings of the founders with their original intent is either purposely lazy or dont want the truth cause it debunks their narrative,,
 
we arent talking about a statute we are talking about the bill of rights, and if someone cant find writings of the founders with their original intent is either purposely lazy or dont want the truth cause it debunks their narrative,,
What do you do when one founder interpreted it different than another? Or said the intent was opposite what another gave as the intent of the law?

Take for example the 14th amendment, that gave citizenship to anyone, including illegal aliens, giving birth on US soil.

The only exclusion was for people like diplomats (and at the time indians) who weren't subject to the jurisdiction of the US.

Even if they intended to exclude illegal aliens, that's not what the clear text said.
 
What do you do when one founder interpreted it different than another? Or said the intent was opposite what another gave as the intent of the law?

Take for example the 14th amendment, that gave citizenship to anyone, including illegal aliens, giving birth on US soil.

The only exclusion was for people like diplomats (and at the time indians) who weren't subject to the jurisdiction of the US.

Even if they intended to exclude illegal aliens, that's not what the clear text said.
so far everything on the 2nd A has been consistent,,

if you have something otherwise I would like to see it??
 
This is where logic comes in. The super-set is the militia, which has a statutory age limit of 17 to 45. The unorganized militia is a sub-set of the militia, which means all of it's members must be members of the militia, which places the same age limits on the sub-set, as the whole.
You have no logic there is no age limit for the unorganized militia.
 



Do you agree or disagree? Why?

A well regulate militia means well equipped and well trained. You did not have to join the militia to own weapons. Women were not allowed in the militia. Yet they are allowed to own weapons. When people exited the militia their weapons were not confiscated. The militia, and the right of the people. Are 2 different things. It is the right of the people to keep and bear arms that shall not be infringed.
 
A well regulate militia means well equipped and well trained. You did not have to join the militia to own weapons. Women were not allowed in the militia. Yet they are allowed to own weapons. When people exited the militia their weapons were not confiscated. The militia, and the right of the people. Are 2 different things. It is the right of the people to keep and bear arms that shall not be infringed.
Correction the people are the militia.
 

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