Wow, how most have forgotten Civics or never learned it in the first place.
Until 1868, the Constitution was only applied to the federal government. The first 10 amendments were written to preserve the states powers over the Federals.
Now, let's take a good look at the applicable line in the Bill of Rights.
subjects who are Protestants may bear arms for their defense as permitted by law;
One has to remember, in 1689, the King was Protestant and the state sponsored Government was also Protestant. This has more to do with the separation of Church and State than what was adopted in the Constitution for Amendment 2. All a King had to do was to claim you weren't a proper Protestant and he could take your arms, and any other restrictions that he deems necessary. All proper Protestant Churches were sanctioned by the King.
Then the newly formed Confederation (later called United States of America) adopted the US version.
A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed
In United States v. Cruikshank (1875), the Court ruled that "[t]he right to bear arms is not granted by the Constitution; neither is it in any manner dependent upon that instrument for its existence. The Second Amendment means no more than that it shall not be infringed by Congress, and has no other effect than to restrict the powers of the National Government."
In United States v. Miller (1939), the Court ruled that the amendment "[protects arms that had a] reasonable relationship to the preservation or efficiency of a well regulated militia"
In District of Columbia v. Heller (2008), the Court ruled that the Second Amendment "codified a pre-existing right" and that it "protects an individual right to possess a firearm unconnected with service in a militia, and to use that arm for traditionally lawful purposes, such as self-defense within the home" but also stated that "the right is not unlimited. It is not a right to keep and carry any weapon whatsoever in any manner whatsoever and for whatever purpose"
In McDonald v. Chicago (2010), the Court ruled that the Second Amendment limits state and local governments to the same extent that it limits the federal government.
So you can easily see that today's definition is quite different than the Bill of Rights or even the Constitution. The powers that many claim came from alter Supreme Court decisions.
Judge Blackstone who, more or less, wrote the lawbooks that are used today said
a public allowance under due restrictions, of the natural right of resistance and self-preservation, when the sanctions of society and laws are found insufficient to restrain the violence of oppression
This does not mean you can carry any type of gun down the street without regardless of your intention or it's purpose. This does not mean you can have a M-60 setup in your front yard. All of these means that you have to be within the current law and reason. And it can't come from the Federal but must come from the State. Each State has the right to limit weapons in Non Military hands. Most do already. Is this another case where the Constitution only applies when it is someone else? At least the English had the balls to clearly put that into the original Bill of Rights.