In English,there is a pronoun like "he" but also a "she". Then there is "his" and "hers". And so on. Why is this extra complexity? Did girls use to speak a different English from guys? Also, other languages have neutral genders, to increment the gender count to three. Is that because half of the speakers were slaves and eunuchs? What is the big idea for this stupid language grammar gender thing in all Indo European languages?
The Afro/Semitic languages seem to be the most ancient and most complex compared with the Aryan/European. The earliest of these is Akkadian documented to Mesopotamia around 2400 BCE.
Hebrew, Aramaic, Egyptian, and Arabic are all Afro/Semitic. They have gender for nouns AND verbs. The genders must agree.
European Languages being descendant from the Aryan/European only have gender for nouns and pronouns. Not verbs. So verb genders were apparently discarded by the Aryan/European group.
Greek is the most complex of the Aryan/European languages and it does not have gender for verbs.
Latin is next most complex but not as complex as Greek.
Japanese also has gender for nouns, pronouns, and verbs. I have studied a little Japanese, Korean, and Mongolian and I know these 3 languages are related. Japanese is one of the most melodic and beautiful languages on the Earth. It has a similar inflection pattern as French although the two are not related at all.
I don't know about Chinese -- other than it is a really fokked up language that sounds like ducks quacking. That's probably where the Chinese got their ideas for words -- from ducks quacking. Chinese is one of if not the ugliest language on the Earth.
I have heard other theories about Chinese being little monkeys that fell out of trees and were not smart enough to climb back up in. So they fell out of the trees, got stuck on the ground, and started quacking like the ducks.
