Considering the words used, I would say it is black and white. I don’t really care how muddled the ‘scholars’ want to make it. I have yet to hear a well-constructed case that makes the second some vaunted ‘collective’ right or connect it to the militia.
Then what the hell is protected?
It seems that you believe that no weapons whatsoever are protected? Please tell me I am incorrect because under that reasoning, the second is utterly meaningless.
Since you ask, I do believe you are incorrect in your interpretation of what I am saying. But if you truly don't care what scholars say then you should ignore my post, as my own views have been informed by those of scholars.
Perhaps I should explain what I meant by that statement then. It was in direct response to this:
Considering constitutional scholars nick-pick this issue, I would say its not quite so black and white.
And somehow, I accidently placed the statement under a quote from you so… I apologize, that was my mistake. All I was getting at is that stating ‘scholars’ muddled the issue so it is not clear without any argument whatsoever is meaningless and I don’t care what the so called scholars that were not cited have to say. Now, as you are constructing an argument, that is another case entirely. I did not mean for that statement to be directed at you.
And limiting yourself to non-scholarly arguments, it is perhaps not surprising that you haven't heard a well-constructed case which reaches different conclusions than your own. In Heller, for instance, the dissent argues that the right is collective and both the dissent and the majority admit that the rights guaranteed by the second amendment are connected to the militia. For the majority, the need to preserve a citizen militia motivated the guarantee of an individual right to bear arms, even though the right was not limited in their view to militia members.
See above: I am not limiting myself to ‘non-scholarly’ arguments

I actually agree with the bolded part also. The right sure is connected with the idea of militiaÂ’s and the ability to even form one in the first place BUT that does not preclude it from being a personal right instead of a collective right. In other words, the right to form a militia is simply nonexistent if there is no right to bear arms. In that context, there is a connection to the militia in the second but that in no way limits the right to a militia. It is still a personal right.
I believe that no weapons are protected by Miller. The case simply held that a particular ban on a particular type of weapon was not a violation of the second amendment. Of course the second amendment protects a (limited) right to bear weapons. There was simply no need for the court to assert that in Miller.
No, but Heller is the case that applies in this argument and, as far as I know, Heller does specify that the right is individual and it overturned a ban on a specific type of weapon. In that light, weapons ARE protected by the second unless you want to argue that the ruling in Heller was incorrect. If no weapons are protected then what, in your opinion, is the point of the second amendment. If nothing is protected, then, by all rights, you can simply ban all guns and be done with it. Nothing is protected after allÂ….
I would like to also point out the basic fallacy of claiming that there is some ‘collective’ right in the second. The founders were not interested in creating collective rights and I do not think there is a single example of such in the constitution. There is no such thing as a ‘collective’ right as the term is essentially meaningless. Each of the bill of rights are as follows:
1: protects the
INDIVIDUAL right to assemble, practice religion and speak. Nowhere is there anything about ‘collective’ anything.
2: ill skip this as it is the one in question here
3: covers the
INDIVIDUAL right to not be forced to quarter troops. Nothing in there concerning collective rights. YOU do not have to quarter troops.
4: The
INDIVIDUAL right to your person and possetions against unreasonable searches and secures aka: your right to privacy. Again, YOU have this right reguardless of any collective.
5: The
INDIVIDUAL right to a trial. Yet again, nothing concerning collectives. YOU have a right to a trial.
6: Connected to the fifth in your rights at a trial. Another
INDIVIDUAL right that has no connections to any collective.
7: See the 6th. Same thing just pertaining to civil trials.
8: The
INDIVIDUAL right to not be subject to cruel and unususal punishment or exsessive bail. More silence on any rights that do not belong to you but instead belong to an undefined collective.
9 & 10: deal with the fact that rights are not limited to what is written and that they are left to the states and the people.
The two articles that were not ratified ALSO did not mention anything about collective rights or rights that were not given to the people. They were, essentially, simple procedure bills dealing with the running of government.
There are no other examples of rights that are enumerated as a ‘collective’ right. There are no similar examples of this concept. To single out the second with this line of reasoning is a huge leap of logic IMHO that is completely dishonest. The founders were interested in protecting individual rights from the encroachment of the government and that was what the BOR was written for. It was NOT created to protect rights of the collective while leaving OUT the individual. If anything, the country has taken this idea EVEN FURTHER in incorporating amendments to apply to the states which was not the original intent at all. To then attempt to REMOVE a right of an individual in order to give it to a collective is, in my opinion, asinine.