The link you provided is very similar to what I posted.
Do you know how to read?
None of what I posted is similar to what you posted. I swear, when you see words on your screen do you actually see words, or do you see what you want to see? That's called "delusion", my friend.
"In a Sept. 22 editorial, The Wall Street Journal said that the law “compels banks to make loans to poor borrowers who often cannot repay them. Banks that failed to make enough of these loans were often held hostage by activists when they next sought some regulatory approval.”
Keyword #1:
EDITORIAL. Keywords #2:
the law "compels banks to make loans to poor borrowers". Can you cite the exact passage of the law itself that compels banks to do that? I doubt it because no such compulsion or mandate exists. Banks weren't forced to suddenly hand out subprime loans en masse starting in 2004. The default rates for GSE-backed loans remained
consistently below 5%, even during the housing bubble burst. When you start using Op-Eds as the basis of your argument, you open yourself up to a broadside attack with facts. Nothing I post or reference is an editorial. I only and exclusively post verifiable data and text, cited and sourced. Conservatives
lie about what the CRA is and what it does. BTW - those changes to the CRA happened in 1996, yet subprime lending spiked in 2004. So unless there was a line in the law that said "beginning in 2004, federal regulators can cease enforcing lending standards", your references to the CRA are undermined by the fact that 3 in 4 subprime loans issued during the mortgage bubble weren't even subject to CRA rules, and those that were performed far better and in line with historical norms.
From American Banker:
Mortgage analyst Laurie Goodman estimated that private label securitizations issued during 2005-2007 incurred a loss rate of 24%, whereas the GSE loss rate for 2005-2007 vintage loans was closer to 4%.
So there ya go...a knife to the heart of your argument.
In a Sept. 15 editorial, Investors Business Daily wrote that by strengthening the reinvestment law in the late 1990s, President Clinton “helped create the market for the risky subprime loans that he and Democrats now decry as not only greedy but ‘predatory.’ “
LOL! Shocking that "investors" who were responsible for the collapse tried to blame it on Clinton and a change to the CRA that happened
eight ******* years before the subprime bubble spiked. How do you account for the fact that 75% of subprimes issued from 2004-7 weren't subject to CRA rules? How do you account for the fact that the 25% of subprimes that
were subject to CRA rules issued from 2004-7 performed much, much better than the ones that weren't? You can't, of course...all you can do is vomit up Op-Eds and hope and pray I let them slide. Bad news for you; I don't.
In a Sept. 18 appearance on MSNBC, conservative economist Larry Kudlow said, “The Community Reinvestment Act literally pushed these lenders to make low-income loans. … Liberal, guilt(y) consciences forced banks and lenders to make lousy, substandard loans.”"
Why anyone would listen to Larry Kudlow is beyond me.
Here's Mr. Kudlow, in 2005, saying that there was no housing bubble at all, and called those warning of a housing bubble "bubbleheads". So he says it
literally pushed these lenders? Ah, so then you should be able to
literally copy and paste the change from the actual legislation to prove it. Can you? I dare you. Banks didn't issue more or less subprime loans from 1993-2003. In fact, subprime originations
declined toward the end of the 90's and the early 00's, mostly due to Clinton's HUD rule that prohibited GSEs from purchasing risky subprime loans. A rule Bush reversed in 2004. Why?