P F Tinmore, et al,
You are trying to argue a point I did not make.
2359 hrs 14 May 1848: The territory was under the control of the Mandatory.
Military control does not mean ownership.
(COMMENT)
The Allied Powers assumed title and rights to the territory pursuant to Article 16 of the Treaty of Lausanne. We are not talking about ownership. Your question was: "So, whose land was it? Remember, you yourself said in an earlier post that the land was not up for grabs." One thing we know 100% for sure, the Ottoman Empire/Turkish Republic did NOT renounce the title and rights to any inhabitants in the Middle East Region. But Article 16 is very clear: "Turkey hereby renounces all rights and title whatsoever over or respecting the territories situated outside the frontiers laid down in the present Treaty and the islands other than those over which her sovereignty is recognised by the said Treaty, the future of these territories and islands being settled or to be settled by the parties concerned." This covered the status at the time of the treaty, and into the future.
Midnight 14/15 May 1948: Transferred to the UNPC (Successor Government).
Appointed government does not mean ownership.
(COMMENT)
This is true, the Allied Powers did not have any intention of establishing ownership. I never mentioned ownership, simply because it was not relevant.
What happened in the Treaty was the establishment of a “succession of State” (in the name of the Allied Powers) that replaced of one State (Ottoman Empire/Turkish Republic) with another (in the name of the Allied Powers) which became responsibility for the international relations of territory in accordance with the Mandate for Palestine.
Midnight 14/15 May 1948: Israel Declares Independence (self-determination) on that territory outlined in GA/RES/181(II).
Resolution 181 was not implemented. There was no territory transferred to Israel by resolution 181.
(COMMENT)
Yes, you keep saying that, but you have been consistently wrong on two counts:
• There is no requirement in the
UN General Assembly Resolution 181 (Ii), Palestine for both parties to accept, or that all aspects must be accomplished. In fact, Part 1, Section F of the Partition Plan states: "When the independence of either the Arab or the Jewish State as envisaged in this plan has become effective and the declaration and undertaking, as envisaged in this plan,
have been signed by either of them, sympathetic consideration should be given to its application for admission to membership in the United Nations in accordance with Article 4 (Membership) of the Charter of the United Nations."
• See
Chapter 2 --- THE PLAN OF PARTITION AND END OF THE BRITISH MANDATE
First Arab-Israeli war, 1948-1949 --- On 14 May 1948, the United Kingdom relinquished its Mandate over Palestine and disengaged its forces. On the same day, the Jewish Agency proclaimed the establishment of the State of Israel on the territory allotted to it by the partition plan.
• The use of this particular complaint (implementation) is an outcome of Arab Aggression in violation of Chapter 1 of the UN Charter. In both customary and treaty law, there are a variety of internationally-recognized legal bases for the use of force in relations between States. Generally speaking, however,
modern jus ad bellum (the law governing a State’s resort to force) is reflected in the United Nations (UN) Charter. The UN Charter provides two bases for a State’s choice to resort to the use of force: Chapter VII enforcement actions under the auspices of the UN Security Council, and self-defense pursuant to Article 51 (which governs acts of both individual and collective self-defense).
Note: this is essentially the same information that I gave you several times before, last time being in
Posting #2618 of the
Who Are The Palestinians? Discussion Thread.
Morning 15 May 1948: Palestinian Irregulars and Arab League Forces attack. Boundaries outlined in the Partition Plan become fluid.
There again, there were no Partition Plan Boundaries.
(COMMENT)
OH nonsense!!!
UN General Assembly Resolution 181 (Ii) Part II. Boundaries
A. The Arab State
B. The Jewish State
Part III. City of Jerusalem
However, these boundaries were immediately made obsolete by the Attack on Israel by multiple Arab States. The Israeli borders expanded. The permanency of these expansions were made in treaties with both Jordan and Egypt.
March/April 1949: Armistice Agreements and lines draw relative to the FEBA.
The armistice lines were specifically not to be political or territorial borders. They did not define any Israeli territory.
(COMMENT)
It is true, and Armistice Line is NOT a permanent International Boundary. However, an Armistice Line is respected in the very same way. They both are respected the identically. Although no one really expects the Hostile Arab to given them consideration.
Declaration on Principles of International Law --- A/RES/25/2625(XXV)
•• Every State likewise has the duty to refrain from the threat or use of force to violate international lines of demarcation, such as armistice lines, established by or pursuant to an international agreement to which it is a party or which it is otherwise bound to respect.
•• Every State has the duty to refrain from the threat or use of force to violate the existing international boundaries of another State or as a means of solving international disputes, including territorial disputes and problems concerning frontiers of States.
• Israel’s acceptance of the “Land for Peace” formula with Syria is considered a mistake by many. However, the current Civil War and Radical Islamic instability will, for the present, hold the status quo.
* The 1993 Oslo Agreements envisioned a negotiated solution to the Israeli-Palestinian conflict; wherein borders were to be decided by both parties themselves; NOT imposed by international consensus or by
unilateral acts.
I don't think it is necessary to reopen the discussion on the blue. Needless to say that Article V, Section 1 states that "The Armistice Demarcation Line shall follow the international boundary between the Lebanon and Palestine." The Blue Line is a
border demarcation between
Lebanon and
Israel published by the
United Nations on 7 June 2000 for the purposes of determining whether Israel had fully withdrawn from Lebanon.
On the establishment of the individual Armistice Agreements, Israel was sovereign and independent; and occupying territory acquired while in pursuit of retreating Arab Forces --- with the remainder of the territory occupied by the respective Arab League states.
Are you implying that Israel acquired Palestinian land from Palestine's neighbors? Interesting legal concept.
(COMMENT)
Israel did not acquire the land from any other states; with the exception of the Golan Heights annexation and the annexation of West Jerusalem. Israel was under attack, and the territory over which Arab Forces withdrew --- and Israeli forces advanced upon. The UNSCOP recommended boundaries (not finalized by the UNPC) set-aside ≈ 56% of the territory under Mandate for the Jewish State. However, the Arab League attacked before the UNPC had the opportunity to finalize the allotments. In mid-1949 and cease-fire, the tactical success, coupled with Arab withdrawals positioned the FEBA such that
Israeli controlled 77% — everything except the West Bank and the eastern quarter of Jerusalem (controlled by Jordan), as well as the Gaza Strip (controlled by Egypt). It left Israelis with a state, but not Palestinians.
Most Respectfully,
R