Comrade
Senior Member
Kathianne said:Coming at this as a math disabled person. 100% of my income is spent, because it's so low. Now, in the past, less than 25% of my income was spent, perhaps I should say 'our income'? Anyways, over 75% of income was saved/invested. Would this be taxed? I don't think so.
How is this fair?
Maybe an example:
McJob dude makes 20,000K annually.
Mr. Man makes 500,000K annually.
McJob spends 18,000K to rent, eat, etc... He's taxed at 10% and pays 1,800 annually. He pays a 9.0% tax rate that year on income. The few thousand he saves will likely get spent in a few years.
Mr. Man spends 300K to live, saves 200K. Pays 30,000 tax annually.
Mr. Man pays a 6.0% tax rate that year.
Mr. Man takes 200K a year and invests it, letting that multiply on a pre-tax basis until it grows to a level over 30 years so that now the amount is worth $1,000,000 for each 200K invested annually.
Spending that in retirement, or, more likely, his kids inheriting that same accrued amount, will finally pay the 10% tax. A tax deferred for 30 years, and which although is now $100,000 against an original 200,000, leaving $900,000 of funds left to consume with.
Now I'd like to DISCOUNT that same 100,000 at back 30 years to equate it to the value of the tax Mr. Man WOULD HAVE PAID 30 years ago, at the investment earnings rate, and then divide it by the treasury rate raised to the power of 30, but I don't think anyone is still with me?
Trust me, it's regressive, unfair, not flat, not equal, the rich get richer and all that stuff. Private investment rates always exceed the government 30 year bond rate, so the tax amount paid by Mr. Man with a flat sales tax is going to be less than he'd pay even with a flat INCOME tax.
Because =
The value of tax collected 30 years from now =
Same tax as of today X [(1+Bond rate) ^ 30 / (1 + Investment rate) ^ 30]
I know you know I'm actuary, babe! Don't make me whip out my calculator!
