Stop Antisemitism

[Rigby5]

Never! Link it, crazy witch.

{...
In the modern world, the boundaries of Palestine were first defined in 1920 through the Franco-British Frontier Accord. The second delineation of Palestine was done towards the end of 1922 by the Transjordan Territorial Agreement. The region encompasses Israel and various territories under Palestine establishment. “One of the essential attributes of a state under International Law is external sovereignty—that is, the right to exercise freely the full range of power a state possesses under international law” (Asem 21). A country is deemed independent when other countries that acknowledge its autonomy do not have any legal mandate over it.
...}

Israel and Palestine: Conflict Resolution - 564 Words | Essay Example

Israel and Palestine have always been in conflict and at times at war since the Jewish state was founded and established in the Middle East and called Israel state.

ivypanda.com

So Palestine was created in 1920, but was not officially considered "independent" until the British dropped their Mandate.
Which happened in 1946.

 

[AzogtheDefiler]

That is just wrong.
Palestine was officially created as an independent country by the Treaty of Sevres and the Treaty of San Remo, in 1920.
That is absolute and indisputable.

And the Palestinians earned their independence by fighting under Lawrence of Arabia, against the Ottoman Empire.

In contrast, the Zionists helped no one, fought no one, earned nothing, and have no legal documentation for the creation of Israel.

Palestine. There was no such thing as a “Palestinian” just like there is no such thing as a “North American” keep up. Zionist just means you believe the Jews should have their own country.

 

[AzogtheDefiler]

I can't believe you are so ignorant. No wonder you are stupid.

Link it then. Arafat, an Egyptian, first used that word in 1967. You’re the stupid one, you old bat.

 

[Rigby5]

My kids’ school had it and several times. It wasn’t fake. Anecdotal but real to me and to them. Being a victim is what leftists play nonstop. And Islamists. 16 mil Jews are suddenly oppressing 1.6pm Muslims. Give me a break, Rigby.

Not sure what you mean?
There are a mixture of Arab natives an Jewish immigrant combined in Israel and Palestine.
But there are 12 million Arab natives and only 6 million Jews.
The fact Israel tries to ignore most of the Arabs they forced into refugee camps in Syria, Egypt, Lebanon, Gaza, and the West Bank, is the problem.
International law requires these natives be allowed the "Right of Return" after they fled the original 1946 and later conflict.
So there are not 1.6 million Arabs and 16 million Jews.
There are 12 million Arabs and only 6 million Jews, in the region of conflict.

 

[AzogtheDefiler]

{...
In the modern world, the boundaries of Palestine were first defined in 1920 through the Franco-British Frontier Accord. The second delineation of Palestine was done towards the end of 1922 by the Transjordan Territorial Agreement. The region encompasses Israel and various territories under Palestine establishment. “One of the essential attributes of a state under International Law is external sovereignty—that is, the right to exercise freely the full range of power a state possesses under international law” (Asem 21). A country is deemed independent when other countries that acknowledge its autonomy do not have any legal mandate over it.
...}

Israel and Palestine: Conflict Resolution - 564 Words | Essay Example

Israel and Palestine have always been in conflict and at times at war since the Jewish state was founded and established in the Middle East and called Israel state.

ivypanda.com

So Palestine was created in 1920, but was not officially considered "independent" until the British dropped their Mandate.
Which happened in 1946.

I said “Palestinian” not “Palestine” are you not understanding me? Brits lived in Palestine. They weren’t “Palestinians”

 

[AzogtheDefiler]

Not sure what you mean?
There are a mixture of Arab natives an Jewish immigrant combined in Israel and Palestine.
But there are 12 million Arab natives and only 6 million Jews.
The fact Israel tries to ignore most of the Arabs they forced into refugee camps in Syria, Egypt, Lebanon, Gaza, and the West Bank, is the problem.
International law requires these natives be allowed the "Right of Return" after they fled the original 1946 and later conflict.
So there are not 1.6 million Arabs and 16 million Jews.
There are 12 million Arabs and only 6 million Jews, in the region of conflict.

All over the world there are 1.6pm Muslims and 16mil Jews. Keep up. This is getting boring. There is no right or wrong that’s subjective. Who has the right to control Crimea? Not for you to decide.

 

[surada]

Link it then. Arafat, an Egyptian, first used that word in 1967. You’re the stupid one, you old bat.

They were calling them Palestinians in 1953. Arafat's father was Egyptian. His mother was Palestinian.

 

[Rigby5]

Palestine. There was no such thing as a “Palestinian” just like there is no such thing as a “North American” keep up. Zionist just means you believe the Jews should have their own country.

Wrong.
The point of the treaties created by the Allies in WWI, like for Lawrence of Arabia, was the contractual obligation to create an official "Palestine".
There is now no legal way to avoid the fact Palestine is the legal entity for the region.
In comparison, Israel is NOT.
Truman created it out of thin air, by executive fiat, which is not legal.

Nor should ANY religion have its own country.
There will always be members of some other religion in that country, so any attempt a forcing one single religion onto an entirely country, always has to be inherently illegal.

And Zionism does NOT mean Jews should have their own country.
What Zionism REALLY means is that if Jews remain faithful, they will be rewarded with an ideal Promised Land.
That likely was meant to imply Heaven, not a country on Earth.

 

[Rigby5]

Link it then. Arafat, an Egyptian, first used that word in 1967. You’re the stupid one, you old bat.

Not at all true.
None of the current Mideast countries existed until the treaties ending WWI.
These treaties created Palestine, Lebanon, Syria, etc.

{...
The San Remo conference was an international meeting of the post-World War I Allied Supreme Council as an outgrowth of the Paris Peace Conference, held at Villa Devachan in Sanremo, Italy, from 19 to 26 April 1920. The San Remo Resolution passed on 25 April 1920 determined the allocation of Class "A" League of Nations mandates for the administration of three then-undefined Ottoman territories in the Middle East: "Palestine", "Syria" and "Mesopotamia". The boundaries of the three territories were "to be determined [at a later date] by the Principal Allied Powers", leaving the status of outlying areas such as Zor and Transjordan unclear.
...}

San Remo conference - Wikipedia

en.wikipedia.org

{...
The Treaty of Sèvres (French: Traité de Sèvres) was a 1920 treaty signed between the Allies of World War I and the Ottoman Empire. The treaty ceded large parts of Ottoman territory to France, the United Kingdom, Greece and Italy, as well as creating large occupation zones within the Ottoman Empire. It was one of a series of treaties[3] that the Central Powers signed with the Allied Powers after their defeat in World War I. Hostilities had already ended with the Armistice of Mudros.

...

The ceding of Eastern Mediterranean lands saw the introduction of novel polities, including the British Mandate for Palestine and the French Mandate for Syria and the Lebanon.[7]
,,,}

Treaty of Sèvres - Wikipedia

en.wikipedia.org

 

[Rigby5]

All over the world there are 1.6pm Muslims and 16mil Jews. Keep up. This is getting boring. There is no right or wrong that’s subjective. Who has the right to control Crimea? Not for you to decide.

There always are inherent factors of right vs wrong.
Possession over a length of time is tied to legal ownership.
And the Palestinians have ancient roots.
Jews do not.
While the Hebrew invaded around 1000 BC, that was evil and only lasted about 250 years.
So there is no inherent large scale Jewish ownership in the Mideast at all.
Only some small individual Jewish ownership of a few plats in the Old Quarter of Jerusalem or a few "back to nature" purchases from 1890 to 1920.

The number of Moslems and the number of Jews is not relevant.
No country is ever going to homogeneous, nor should one be.
So any attempt to create a country based on religion is a terrible idea.
It inherently violates all we know about democratic republics.

With the Crimea, it is clearly Russian under historic and cultural basis.
But the problem is not the Crimea.
It is likely the Russians want more than just the Crimea.

 

[Rigby5]

They were calling them Palestinians in 1953. Arafat's father was Egyptian. His mother was Palestinian.

They were calling them Palestinians in 1916 and made it official in 1920.

 

[Rigby5]

So why did Truman create Israel out of thin air?
Obviously because that gained the democrats something like 10 million US voters, as well as millions in campaign donations.
And that is not how rights, laws, and issues should be determined.
That is the ultimate in corruption by the wealthy elite, compared to the Palestinians, who were ignored because there were poor and could not vote in the US.

 

[AzogtheDefiler]

They were calling them Palestinians in 1953. Arafat's father was Egyptian. His mother was Palestinian.

Nope. Link it

 

[AzogtheDefiler]

Wrong.
The point of the treaties created by the Allies in WWI, like for Lawrence of Arabia, was the contractual obligation to create an official "Palestine".
There is now no legal way to avoid the fact Palestine is the legal entity for the region.
In comparison, Israel is NOT.
Truman created it out of thin air, by executive fiat, which is not legal.

Nor should ANY religion have its own country.
There will always be members of some other religion in that country, so any attempt a forcing one single religion onto an entirely country, always has to be inherently illegal.

And Zionism does NOT mean Jews should have their own country.
What Zionism REALLY means is that if Jews remain faithful, they will be rewarded with an ideal Promised Land.
That likely was meant to imply Heaven, not a country on Earth.

Link it. I am Never wrong

 

[AzogtheDefiler]

Never used the word “Palestinian” you’re dancing

 

[AzogtheDefiler]

There always are inherent factors of right vs wrong.
Possession over a length of time is tied to legal ownership.
And the Palestinians have ancient roots.
Jews do not.
While the Hebrew invaded around 1000 BC, that was evil and only lasted about 250 years.
So there is no inherent large scale Jewish ownership in the Mideast at all.
Only some small individual Jewish ownership of a few plats in the Old Quarter of Jerusalem or a few "back to nature" purchases from 1890 to 1920.

The number of Moslems and the number of Jews is not relevant.
No country is ever going to homogeneous, nor should one be.
So any attempt to create a country based on religion is a terrible idea.
It inherently violates all we know about democratic republics.

With the Crimea, it is clearly Russian under historic and cultural basis.
But the problem is not the Crimea.
It is likely the Russians want more than just the Crimea.

You don’t get to decide right Vs wrong. Might makes right.

 

[AzogtheDefiler]

They were calling them Palestinians in 1916 and made it official in 1920.

Link it. Do it. You lie

 

[Rigby5]

I said “Palestinian” not “Palestine” are you not understanding me? Brits lived in Palestine. They weren’t “Palestinians”

Not sure what you mean?
Palestine originally was a larger location instead of a just a country, but the treaties after WWI created lots of countries, Palestine being one of them.
No one can deny that Palestine was created as a country in 1920.
That is just absolute fact.

And those living in Palestine were NOT ever British.
There was never British ownership of Palestine.
They were not British citizens.
They were citizens of the Ottoman Empire before WWI, and after WWI they became Palestinians.
Palestinian citizenship was created in 1920.

 

[AzogtheDefiler]

Not sure what you mean?
Palestine originally was a larger location instead of a just a country, but the treaties after WWI created lots of countries, Palestine being one of them.
No one can deny that Palestine was created as a country in 1920.
That is just absolute fact.

And those living in Palestine were NOT ever British.
There was never British ownership of Palestine.
They were not British citizens.
They were citizens of the Ottoman Empire before WWI, and after WWI they became Palestinians.
Palestinian citizenship was created in 1920.

Are you trolling? When was the word “Palestinian” first used? 1967. Not sure what you mean? I am speaking clear English. Palestine was an area but no one who lived there was called a Palestinian until 1967. Clear enough for you?

 

[Rigby5]

You don’t get to decide right Vs wrong. Might makes right.

Wrong.
Might does not make right.
If that were true, we would never arrest criminals or go to war.
We are able to do things like arrest criminals and go to war because we have inherent concepts of justice, right vs wrong, etc., that are part of the agreed upon human experience definition.
And we pretty much universally share those standards with all humans.
That is why we can have religions, rebellions, etc.
If we were carnivores or scavengers, we likely would have different inherent values.
Humans have pretty universally rejected "might makes right" for hundreds of years now.

But we do universally acknowledge the rights of those living in a particular place for any length of time.
Even if they originally did not purchase the land, there is an acknowledges "right of adverse possession".
Which Israel can not use, because the Palestinians immediately contested the Israel possession.