Red Front
Gold Member
- Jul 7, 2022
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- #101
Calling Ottoman land "Arab land" doesn't make it so.
The Arabs were mostly renters and squatters.
They owned less land than the Jews in 1917.
Beginning in the late 19th century and intensifying in the 20th century, various Jewish organizations started purchasing land in Palestine. The two most prominent were the Jewish National Fund (JNF) and the Palestine Jewish Colonization Association. These organizations aimed to buy land for Jewish settlement.
The Zionist project in Palestine was characterized by a strong emphasis on collective settlement, such as kibbutzim (collective farms) and moshavim (cooperative farming villages). In general, the land was collectively owned, individual Jews and families lived on and worked the land. Most Jewish individuals didn't "own" land or a house either, in the way that you're suggesting. Moreover, when they engaged in their ethnic cleansing war, they simply took whatever they wanted and the Jewish State recognized their ownership of the property.
There were many Palestinians (many families) who owned their homes in villages across the land, including farmland. However, if you want to deny that, that's fine, so what? If they had different living arrangements that didn't fit with our modern concept of "home ownership" or owning land, that doesn't undermine their claim that Palestine is their country, rather than the country of foreign colonizers. To suggest otherwise is quite RICH, especially when most of those Zionist colonizers didn't individually "OWN" the land either. It never fails to amaze me the bullshit Zionists come up with to defend their illegal occupation of Palestine.